One of the great things about polygyny topic is that it helps us to adapt hermeneutical method that equips us better at arriving to truth of God's word. As a result, we are less likely to be bound by presuppositions that handicaps our understanding.
Most recently I have consulted 11 commentators and I have not seen a hint of what I am concluding from the following passages.
And if any one doth think it to be unseemly to his virgin, if she may be beyond the bloom of age, and it ought so to be, what he willeth let him do; he doth not sin—let him marry. 37And he who hath stood stedfast in the heart—not having necessity—and hath authority over his own will, and this he hath determined in his heart—to keep his own virgin—doth well; (YLT)
But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry. 37 Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well. (KJV)
Most other translations supply meaning betrothed, or daughter. And in order to arrive to certain meaning, commentators have to rely on certain assumptions. I am also introducing an assumption that resolves mystery about the passage.
According to one commentator Alan F. Johnson, he says about 7:25-38, "It is no exaggeration to call this passage one of the most difficult to interpret in all of Paul's letters. Why? First, because there is a great deal of uncertainty as to whom Paul is referring with the term virgins." and about 7:36-38, "exegetically it is a very difficult passage. Scholars have identified at least six possible views regarding whom Paul refers to as man (or 'anyone') and virgin." (Johnson, A. F. (n.d.). Corinthians, 1 (ivpntc, Vol 7). InterVarsity Press. page124, 129).
Some conclude that this is talking about "spiritual marriage" (marriage without sex), some that this is father giving his daughter to marriage, or two people engaged to each without consummating the marriage.
It is my conclusion that the passage makes more sense when one assumes that this is talking about a virgin girl who is slave. This is supported when verse 21 is taken into consideration which talks about male servant/slave, and then shifts to talk about slave girl who is virgin in verse 25. Big picture of the chapter is to remain in the state Christ found you and how to deal with sexual urges and here Paul explains situation when believer has a virgin servant.
Why it matters? Besides the truth, this particular passage contributes to understanding what marriage is. Intercourse with commitment is marriage, intercourse without commitment is whoredom. In this passage we see a virgin servant girl who is assigned to her master's house, but her master is evaluating whether he would be acting out "uncomely toward his virgin." The girl is already his, but she is not his wife until he has sex with her.
Did anybody see other people concluding the same thing?
Most recently I have consulted 11 commentators and I have not seen a hint of what I am concluding from the following passages.
And if any one doth think it to be unseemly to his virgin, if she may be beyond the bloom of age, and it ought so to be, what he willeth let him do; he doth not sin—let him marry. 37And he who hath stood stedfast in the heart—not having necessity—and hath authority over his own will, and this he hath determined in his heart—to keep his own virgin—doth well; (YLT)
But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry. 37 Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well. (KJV)
Most other translations supply meaning betrothed, or daughter. And in order to arrive to certain meaning, commentators have to rely on certain assumptions. I am also introducing an assumption that resolves mystery about the passage.
According to one commentator Alan F. Johnson, he says about 7:25-38, "It is no exaggeration to call this passage one of the most difficult to interpret in all of Paul's letters. Why? First, because there is a great deal of uncertainty as to whom Paul is referring with the term virgins." and about 7:36-38, "exegetically it is a very difficult passage. Scholars have identified at least six possible views regarding whom Paul refers to as man (or 'anyone') and virgin." (Johnson, A. F. (n.d.). Corinthians, 1 (ivpntc, Vol 7). InterVarsity Press. page124, 129).
Some conclude that this is talking about "spiritual marriage" (marriage without sex), some that this is father giving his daughter to marriage, or two people engaged to each without consummating the marriage.
It is my conclusion that the passage makes more sense when one assumes that this is talking about a virgin girl who is slave. This is supported when verse 21 is taken into consideration which talks about male servant/slave, and then shifts to talk about slave girl who is virgin in verse 25. Big picture of the chapter is to remain in the state Christ found you and how to deal with sexual urges and here Paul explains situation when believer has a virgin servant.
Why it matters? Besides the truth, this particular passage contributes to understanding what marriage is. Intercourse with commitment is marriage, intercourse without commitment is whoredom. In this passage we see a virgin servant girl who is assigned to her master's house, but her master is evaluating whether he would be acting out "uncomely toward his virgin." The girl is already his, but she is not his wife until he has sex with her.
Did anybody see other people concluding the same thing?
