• Biblical Families is not a dating website. It is a forum to discuss issues relating to marriage and the Bible, and to offer guidance and support, not to find a wife. Click here for more information.

Overcoming Objections To Plural Marriage: Topic 6

Doc

Member
Real Person
Just because the Bible mentions a trait or act of an individual, even a godly person, does not necessarily mean that the Bible endorsed such. The mentioning of Noah becoming drunk and disgracing himself is mentioned, but certainly not condoned. Another example was the half-truth that Abram said regarding Sarai being his sister, and not his wife. Thus, just because the Old Testament patriarchs practiced plural marriage, that does not mean that God condoned it. In fact, God regulated it.

Responses?
 
Well, the Bible clearly speaks against drunkenness in many other passages, so Noah's sin was clearly defined elsewhere. Concerning Abram's half-truth: again, the sin of lying is clearly defined elsewhere in the Bible, therefore it was a known sin. Polygamy is never defined as a sin anywhere in the Bible, therefore it wasn't as if God was overlooking it or forgot to correct it.
 
That is the most concise way of deal with it, good one Mark. I tend to use something more along the line of what Duet said in more detailed conversations though.
 
These are great points guys... Being new to the concept of openly sharing my beliefs on the topic, has left me wondering how to handle some types of objections. THANK YOU!!!
 
Regulation <> Condemnation
Regulation <> Prohibition
Regulation == Permission and definition for doing correctly

Another one bites the dust. Bwaaaaahahaha! :lol:
 
deut30 said:
Well, the Bible clearly speaks against drunkenness in many other passages, so Noah's sin was clearly defined elsewhere. Concerning Abram's half-truth: again, the sin of lying is clearly defined elsewhere in the Bible, therefore it was a known sin. Polygamy is never defined as a sin anywhere in the Bible, therefore it wasn't as if God was overlooking it or forgot to correct it.
This is just the best answer any one can give or get, am learning here ,real good.
 
Biblically stated, God has 2 "wives" of his own. If Polygamy was prohibited by him, he would not use this as a teaching parable. Not to mention, if God prohibited Polygamy, King David's situation with Bathsheba should have been counted a sin of this type, but it wasn't having two wives that was punished, but the coveting of another man's wife and the subsequent set up for murder that was punished...proof of this is stated by God's own words when he told David "And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if [that had been] too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things" 2 Samuel 12:8 (note the fact that he gave him HIS MASTER"S WIVES... if it was forbidden God himself would not have given them to him!

Barb :) :shock:
 
Back
Top