Remarriage

[Doc]

In 1 Corinthians 7:27, 28 it says, "Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry, you have not sinned."

What we have been taught is that you can ONLY get remarried if your spouse is dead ? period! Therefore, let's apply this teaching to this scripture. "Are you bound (married) to a wife? Do not seek be loosed (to kill her or to put a contract out on her). Are you loosed from a wife (did you kill her or have her murdered)? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry another woman (after you had your wife killed) you have not sinned." Can you see the utter silliness of that rationale? This is the proper understanding: "Are you bound (married) to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed (divorced). Are you loosed (divorced) from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry (after you have been divorced), you have not sinned."

Next, look at 1 Corinthians 7:8, 9 which says, "I say unto the UNMARRIED and the WIDOWS, 'it is good for them if they abide even as I (meaning to stay single). But if THEY cannot contain (having self-control to stay single) LET THEM MARRY: FOR IT IS BETTER TO MARRY than to burn (with passion for a mate)."

Religion has taught us that the "unmarried" in this Scripture does not refer to anyone who was divorced, only to those who where NEVER MARRIED. If "unmarried" means "NEVER MARRIED," then why did Paul the Apostle who wrote this letter continue only sixteen verses later say, "NOW concerning VIRGINS..."? Virgins (those who where NEVER MARRIED were NOT of those mentioned who where UNMARRIED. "NOW" he is talking about them?--the virgins?. Before he wasn't! Then Paul goes on to say that the virgins and those who are UNMARRIED ? "loosed from a wife" (divorced) are in the same category if they marry ? "THEY HAVE NOT SINNED."

Therefore, 1Corinthians 7:27, 28 properly reads: "Are you bound (married) to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed (divorced). Are you loosed (divorced) from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry (after you have been divorced), you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned."

Blessings,

Doc

 

[Doc]

Mark,

I know that you understand that I was not putting words in Paul's mouth, but was rather reading back the logic of those who say that the only division of marriage can occur at death. My pentecostal background used to teach that divorce was almost the unpardonable sin. It got you booted out of the ministry automatically.

For example, I went to Bible college with a man who actually murdered someone. Killed them dead. He served time for manslaughter. He got saved, he got released, and he got called into the ministry. Finished his four years at Bible college, and is now serving the Lord an as ordained Assemblies of God pastor. God bless him for it. Yet, if that same man was divorced, either after or even BEFORE salvation, not only could he not serve as a pastor, he couldn't even get into that same Bible college...his murder rap not withstanding.

There is a breakdown in our logic here somewhere.

That was what I was trying to point out with my statement. It is not a matter of Paul's (and thus God's) contradiction, but the verbal trap man sets for himself. Thank GOD FOR GRACE!!

Blessings

Doc

 

[FollowingHim]

Just to be pedantic, although I agree with you that a divorced woman can remarry, I don't think this particular passage actually says so (I think you are reading this presupposition into it).

This passage is talking very clearly first about men, and then about women.

Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; , and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned.

My paraphrase would be: "A man who has a wife should not seek to divorce her. A divorced man should not seek to marry. However, if he does marry, he has not sinned. Also, a virgin woman who chooses to marry has not sinned either."

The only time this passage mentions women is using the word "virgin", Greek "parthenos", defined by Strongs as

1) a virgin
a) a marriageable maiden
b) a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man
c) one's marriageable daughter

Or also as a virgin male, but in this case the word "she" is used so we know it is talking about females.

Therefore this passage never once mentions a divorced woman or a widow. It just talks about divorced men and virgin women. We can conclude from it that a divorced man can marry a virgin - but that is something we implicitly accept in accepting polygyny anyway, because he can have as many wives as he wants. You can accept that without believing that divorce actually releases women at all.

I want to be clear that I completely agree with you that a divorced woman is free to remarry. I just have a strong interest in careful interpretation of scripture and feel we must be very careful not to slip into believing every passage we read is a clear support of our presuppositions (even when those presuppositions are shown to be correct elsewhere). Iron sharpens iron, and you're already very sharp Doc, if I'm to help sharpen your sword I'll be pointing out very small details!