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Something to consider

So last night before bed my man and I were doing our nightly devotions as we do every night and he shared a bible verse with me that he plans to do an in depth study on soon and I had volunteered to join as well. And I thought maybe some of you had considered the same as we do or maybe you have some of your own conclusions or even done your own study on it and just wanted to see what everyone says before we do our study on it.

Colossians 3:19 says, "Husbands, love your wives, and be not bitter against them." (KJV)

So as we think there is a reason why G-D says wives and not wife. So could it be fitting with plural marriage?

~Asia
 
To play Devil's advocate: the monogamists only crowd will interpret that verse that if there are 50 husbands in the room they should love their corresponding 50 wives not 50+ wives :)

It would be interesting to see the original language and see if it could also be interpreted that a husband should love his wives. Any scholars amongst us up to the task?
 
Verse 18, gune=a woman, a wife; huppotaso=subordinate, idios=one's own, aner, an individual male.... Verse 19: aner=individual male, agapao=love, gune=a woman, a wife...

Walt
 
If a general command about marriage were given in a polygynist mode, it would be necessity exclude monogamists. Since every polygynist can be included in a general command to any married man, the most inclusive way for the Bible to speak is from the monogamist viewpoint, since it covers all marital statuses/
 
I'm with eternitee. The fact that it says "Husbands" doesn't make us think the passage is talking about polyandry, why should the term "Wives" make us think it is about polygyny? This passage tells all husbands, however many there are, to love their wives, whether they have one or more than one. It is equally applicable to both monogamy and polygyny.

Walt, those are not the actual words in the text, but only the root words which the actual words used are derived from (Strongs concordance lists only root words). For instance, the word for "wives" in verse 18 is actually "γυναικες", or "gunaikes", which is the plural of "gune" - so the correct translation is "wives", not "a wife". Strongs doesn't list this though, only listing the root word "γυνή", or "gune".
 
FH:

I looked at an interlinear, and if I understand correctly, verse 18 talks about wives relationship to their own husband, and verse 19 talks about men with their wives. It looks like defining polygyny and excluding polyandry?

Walt
 
Both times husbands are mentioned the word is plural, so I can't see polygyny directly there. However the tense of each word is different and my Greek is far too poor to be sure of the implications of that. Studying Greek at present so hopefully I can rectify that soon!
 
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