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The reason why I got into the subject of polygyny . . .

I'll add a couple more points:

Jeremiah 3:1 They say, ‘If a man divorces his wife, And she goes from him And becomes another man’s, May he return to her again?’ Would not that land be greatly polluted? But you have played the harlot with many lovers; Yet return to Me,” says the LORD.

The first sentence isn't the full law repeated, but the relevant part: she became another man's.

A woman who "played the whore with many lovers" and tries to return to her husband is unfathomable under Israel's law (the law commands that she's long-since dead), but the issue is the same which is why God compares the two: the abomination of a defiled wife returning to her husband.

As we can see from the comparison, Israel would be expected to know what the two scenarios had in common as relevant to the point.

As mentioned, the full Jeremiah 3 (and the whole analogy of Hosea and Gomer) is to renounce the adulteries and THEN return -- not the latter before the former.

This is why Joseph was "afraid" to take Mary: not just put off or disgusted, but truly afraid. He was considered a "just man" for not wanting to join to a woman who he thought was defiled.

And it is not grammatically possible to say that Joseph was a "just man" and THEREFORE wanted to put her away quietly; the conjunction is "and," to put ideas together, but implicitly excludes direct causation.
 
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However, your whole argument is that things MUST happen as written.
No, you completely read over my point.

The argument is addressing a loophole in the law of "what to do if 'x'". If you're going to ignore the difference between what the law says to do versus what actually happens every single time because people were forgiven (or just escaped punishment somehow), then we are indeed at an impasse. Many sinners were commanded for the death penalty but were forgiven. The issue is, what does the law say to do in "x" situation.
 
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Do we not agree that "defiled" is referring to an act of adultery here:
No. And most certainly 'no'.

As noted above, check the REAL original word. "Tameh" means 'unclean'. (Did you know that a man becomes 'tameh' until evening by 'expelling his seed'? It's not a crime.)

But that's not at all relevant to the point: every other LAW that was written results in an adulteress being stoned to death or incapable of sexual relations.
Ouch. That doesn't even get the word "LAW" right. (I've harped on that for hours in Torah teachings ["instruction", not 'LAW'] but it MISSES the point. )

Unless you understand the real words, and meaning in context, there will be (as Kefa/'Peter' noted in his VERY last verses) 'twisting'.

This next part is MY OPINION, based on Scripture, but not "provable" by it. (WHY can a husband not take back a wife he BOTH 'put away' AND then gave a 'sefer keretutah' to, and THEN she "became another man's".)

Marriage is a Covenant. This situation (Deut. 24:1) resulted in VOIDING of that covenant, and the husband, by giving a 'get', see Numbers 30, has become her WRITTEN witness (to the next guy - she needs TWO, remember: herself, and that one) that she "no longer has a living husband." He even "bears her guilt."

This guy has thus ALREADY broken that covenant with her. Consider the implication, and read verse 3.
 
Jeremiah 3:1 They say, ‘If a man divorces his wife, And she goes from him And becomes another man’s, May he return to her again?’
Aaargh...
WRONG!

It says "if a man PUT AWAY his wife". What is MISSING? The details MATTER. (That's an awful rendering.)

Compare Isaiah 50:1 and ask why the difference?

Xtianity is FULL of baggage for having failed to properly READ the Instruction (which Yahushua taught "as One having Authority!") and then saying it was "done away with" anyway. When it ALL fits, you're on the right track.
 
No. And most certainly 'no'.

Interesting. So what action did this man not do that would have defiled his neighbor's wife?

Ezekiel 18:6
If he has not eaten on the mountains, Nor lifted up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, Nor defiled his neighbor’s wife, Nor approached a woman during her impurity;

If it wasn't sexual relations, then what was the thing that he did not do that would have defiled his neighbor's wife?

As noted above, check the REAL original word. "Tameh" means 'unclean'. (Did you know that a man becomes 'tameh' until evening by 'expelling his seed'? It's not a crime.)

Yes, and I know that that is a "ceremonial" uncleanliness, like to stay away from the temple. Do you think that the woman who became "defiled" in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 was also ceremonially unclean and, unlike the laws with a specified period of uncleanness, would be just ceremonially unclean for life also (since it sounds like you're removing any distinction whatsoever about what "defiled" means?) since the period of her defilement is unspecified? All the consequences of being ceremonially "unclean" will apply forever?

And finally: why is this woman "defiled"? What was it exactly that "defiled" her?
 
Now try inserting the correct word EVERYWHERE, and you can answer your own questions.
The question I had was: why is she then "defiled" after the second marriage and no, I do not see how that answers it.

What I do see answering it is: the second marriage defiled her because it was an act of adultery as Jesus would later preach in Matthew 5:32.
 
Interesting. So what action did this man not do that would have defiled his neighbor's wife?

Ezekiel 18:6
If he has not eaten on the mountains, Nor lifted up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, Nor defiled his neighbor’s wife, Nor approached a woman during her impurity;

If it wasn't sexual relations, then what was the thing that he did not do that would have defiled his neighbor's wife?



Yes, and I know that that is a "ceremonial" uncleanliness, like to stay away from the temple. Do you think that the woman who became "defiled" in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 was also ceremonially unclean and, unlike the laws with a specified period of uncleanness, would be just ceremonially unclean for life also (since it sounds like you're removing any distinction whatsoever about what "defiled" means?) since the period of her defilement is unspecified? All the consequences of being ceremonially "unclean" will apply forever?

And finally: why is this woman "defiled"? What was it exactly that "defiled" her?
Study who the high priest can marry
 
The question I had was: why is she then "defiled" after the second marriage and no, I do not see how that answers it.
Last time: Because she's "tameh". Not, repeat NOT 'identically equal to' "defiled." (It doesn't help that you try to make it "ritually" so, either.)

You won't understand until you get the meaning of the word right.

And she is "tameh" to exactly WHO?

Can she go and be any OTHER man's isha? What is the actual prohibition?

(And, fer cryin' out loud - how can Yah Himself say "return to Me" after she has "played the harlot" with 'many lovers'?)
 
Or a divorced woman or harlot.
Also for the normal priests
I remember priests being required to marry virgins or the widow of another priest.
 
On the contrary, each time the situation actually comes up, the people involved are forgiven.
The most important adulteress that was not killed, but forgiven, is the house of Israel! Yeshua took the penalty upon Himself... she was/is punished, but (Romans 7:1-5ish) indicated His death in her place... fascinating Divine twist...
 
The law is "what to do in 'x' situation." Every law involving a defiled wife results in her death or being incapable of sexual relations.
I think technically, the Torah lists maximum penalties. The one sinned against always has the option to extend mercy and forgive...
 
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