Specifically verse 2...
And if this has been discussed elsewhere, please point me to where, as I couldn’t find anything.
But this verse, Paul is speaking, says each man his own wife and each wife her own husband, and it’s regarding immortality at that time. I’m one where the Bible was meant for all times not just ‘Bible times’, so due to a discussion in a Facebook group I’m part of, I’d like to know how everyone is interpreting this passage, and if my opinion of Jesus came not to abolish the laws but to fulfill them stands true with this scripture also, or how this all ties in. Obviously I completely believe plural marriage is biblical and acceptable, but I want to make sure before I go getting myself mired in something that I have my facts and evidence of proof correct. That’s and how I interpret that verse might be different then someone else interprets it....especially with my understanding of the letter to the Corinthians...
And if this has been discussed elsewhere, please point me to where, as I couldn’t find anything.
But this verse, Paul is speaking, says each man his own wife and each wife her own husband, and it’s regarding immortality at that time. I’m one where the Bible was meant for all times not just ‘Bible times’, so due to a discussion in a Facebook group I’m part of, I’d like to know how everyone is interpreting this passage, and if my opinion of Jesus came not to abolish the laws but to fulfill them stands true with this scripture also, or how this all ties in. Obviously I completely believe plural marriage is biblical and acceptable, but I want to make sure before I go getting myself mired in something that I have my facts and evidence of proof correct. That’s and how I interpret that verse might be different then someone else interprets it....especially with my understanding of the letter to the Corinthians...