But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it mean

[DiscussingTheTopic]

Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man.
1 Timothy 5:9 King James

No widow may be put on the list of widows unless she is over sixty, has been faithful to her husband,[a]
A. 1 Timothy 5:9 Or has had but one husband
1 Timothy 5:9 NIV

[NOTICE how the structure reminds me of the deacon one woman debate, only in this case one husband]


Eis εἷς is used instead of Mia μία in King James strong concordance numbers, so perhaps this is irrelevant

 

[The Duke Of Marshall]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

Just did a quick look up on BlueLetterBible and it seems as though the only similarities are in the translation. The greek here "heis" is a definate numeral whereas "mia" is disputable. Unfortunately the average "Joe" doesn't notice this and instead just thinks that the "one" statement applies equally in both instances.

 

[DiscussingTheTopic]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

Just did a quick look up on BlueLetterBible and it seems as though the only similarities are in the translation. The greek here "heis" is a definate numeral whereas "mia" is disputable. Unfortunately the average "Joe" doesn't notice this and instead just thinks that the "one" statement applies equally in both instances.

How can she have one husband if she is a widow?

If you trust blue letter bible

1 Timothy 3:2 uses "heis" εἷς in NIV but mia μία in KJV

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... NIV#conc/2

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... KJV#conc/2


1 Timothy 3:12 uses "heis" εἷς in NIV but mia μία in KJV

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... IV#conc/12

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... JV#conc/12

Titus 1:6 uses "heis" εἷς in NIV but mia μία in KJV

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... NIV#conc/6

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cf ... KJV#conc/6


Is this manuscript variants and or a massive conspiracy against polygamy and or something else?

 

[Ephraim]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

It’s my understanding that the NIV actually uses a different manuscript than the KJV.

If you look on the NIV links provided the word for word breakdown does not match the Received Text portion or the GNT at the top and bottom of the breakdown. I don’t know why though. Of course if you don't read Greek this doesn't really help anything.

 

[Yaakov]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

Please be careful with "heis", "mia" and "hen". These are all the same word. There is no difference in meaning only in "gender" - a concept utterly foreign to native speakers of English.

"heis" is masculine; "mia" is feminine and "hen" is neutrum. In any Greek dictionary one will find this word under the masculine, singular, nominative form "heis".

The structure of the "husband of 'one' wife" phrases is "μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἀνήρ" = "a woman's man" or "man of a woman". (There was not word for "husband" of "wife".) [Please note: "μιᾶς" is the genitive singular form of the feminine.]

The structure of the "wife of 'one' husband" phrase is the same: "ἑνὸς ἀνδρὸς γυνή" = "a man's woman" or "woman of a man". [Please note: "ἑνὸς" is the genitive singular form of the masculine.]

I respectfully submit that these phrases are nothing more than the Koine Greek way of saying that they should be (or have been) married.

German is similar in this respect. Although there are words for "husband" (Ehemann) or "wife" (Ehefrau) the common expression is "mein Mann" or "meine Frau".

 

[DiscussingTheTopic]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

I respectfully submit that these phrases are nothing more than the Koine Greek way of saying that they should be (or have been) married.

That could explain how a widow could have HAD (past tense) one husband! Because how could she have one husband if her husband was dead without remarrying. So she must have really been a widow not a single woman pretending her husband was dead or a single mother who happened to be a prostitute that never married, etc.

For Titus 1:6, 1 Timothy 3:2 and 1 Timothy 3:12 I suggest the following.

Now if it also means the deacon was married [just as it would mean the widow was married] if he has two wives he also was married.

If I need $1 to buy from the dollar menu at a restaurant but I have $2 I have enough because for instance I could have a $1 bill and another $1 bill, so by having $2 someone can have $1 on the other hand if they have $0 they do not have $1. [Of course one could really mean only one and not two, but then you could argue it means only one and not zero, in which case if they try to apply the verse to people other than specific Church leaders everyone would have to be married from birth or in sin. I continue to propose that those verses only apply to specific groups of people not all people.]

A woman can not be married to more than one man at a time (Romans 7:3 and elsewhere)

 

[NeoPatriarch]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

That could explain how a widow could have HAD (past tense) one husband! Because how could she have one husband if her husband was dead without remarrying. So she must have really been a widow not a single woman pretending her husband was dead or a single mother who happened to be a prostitute that never married, etc.

See my thread "...widows that are widows indeed"
http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum2/viewtopic.php?f=19&t=1872&p=17913#p17913

These thoughts fit nicely into the topic.

 

[DiscussingTheTopic]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

That could explain how a widow could have HAD (past tense) one husband! Because how could she have one husband if her husband was dead without remarrying. So she must have really been a widow not a single woman pretending her husband was dead or a single mother who happened to be a prostitute that never married, etc.

See my thread "...widows that are widows indeed"
http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum2/viewtopic.php?f=19&t=1872&p=17913#p17913

These thoughts fit nicely into the topic.

Yes it does thank you

 

[Scarecrow]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

"I respectfully submit that these phrases are nothing more than the Koine Greek way of saying that they should be (or have been) married."

That goes a long way toward explaining a number ot things...Thank you!

 

[ke4ke]

Re: But one husband footnote 1 timothy 5:9 NIV what does it

Hello,

Yes everything I saw for years seemed to make a difference in meaning between heis and mia, but it is true there is a difference between the words in the gender. Mia is feminine, heis is masculine. Strong's says that heis is mia's root. Do we know that for a fact? Any ideas?

The NIV adds a word (but) to 1 Timothy 3:2 for example changing the meaning from a positive "must have a wife" (my reckoning is that the man just must be married.) to a negative limitation making it an anti-scriptural marriage statement.
1 Timothy 5:9 should probably say wife of a husband.

I just realized that we do not have an NIV and other information in the house. We just moved. I had more to say, but better leave it alone with out documentation.

Sorry