Curtis, let's back up a step. You are right that I didn't explain myself properly in the other thread, it was a side issue and I didn't think I should go down it at the time. The original comment made by another poster that kicked this off was:
I really believe that what we are actually talking about here is the difference between the law of sin and death and the law of the Spirit. Whereas the Mosaic law demanded that the women caught in the very act of adultery be stoned Jesus did not cast the first stone even though He was the only one qualified to do so. Jesus walked by the law of the spirit of life.
This comment suggested, as I took it anyway, that Jesus disobeyed the Mosaic law - the law commanded that He stone her, and He refused, walking instead by a different law. Maybe I read that differently to you. By my reading, this statement was a serious error, because until Jesus' sacrificial death for our sins the Mosaic law was in full effect, and Jesus followed the law perfectly. If He had broken the Mosaic law, He would have been sinning. He would not therefore have been a sinless sacrifice, and salvation itself would be undermined.
If the law required that Jesus stone this woman, then Jesus is a sinner for refusing. That cannot be correct. Jesus' actions MUST have been in accordance with the law. So how were they?
The answer in my mind is because the law stated that when someone sinned deserving death:
Deuteronomy 17:5-7 said:
then you shall bring out to your gates that man or woman who has done this evil thing, and you shall stone that man or woman to death with stones. On the evidence of two witnesses or of three witnesses the one who is to die shall be put to death; a person shall not be put to death on the evidence of one witness. The hand of the witnesses shall be first against him to put him to death, and afterward the hand of all the people. So you shall purge the evil from your midst.
If Jesus was a witness, and had a second witness backing him up (the Father), then He would be required to stone her. But if He were not considered a "witness" for the purpose of this law, then this law did not relate to him, and he remains sinless.
What did Jesus actually say to the woman? "Woman, where are those thine accusers? Hath no man condemned thee?" (John 8:10). He was asking for witnesses. He was looking to find whether there were "two or three witnesses" to her sin. When it was clear that no witnesses remained, He said "Neither do I condemn thee". It all came down to whether there were witnesses.
You quote correctly from later in that chapter about witnesses. But the subject there was not the woman caught in adultery, the conversation had moved on. Rather, it was about Jesus Himself:
John 8:12-19 said:
12 Then spake Jesus again unto them, saying, I am the light of the world: he that followeth me shall not walk in darkness, but shall have the light of life.
13 The Pharisees therefore said unto him, Thou bearest record of thyself; thy record is not true.
14 Jesus answered and said unto them, Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true: for I know whence I came, and whither I go; but ye cannot tell whence I come, and whither I go.
15 Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man.
16 And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me.
17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
18 I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.
19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
This is a separate conversation. Pay attention to the three bolded statements.
1) Jesus claimed to be the light of the world.
2) The Pharisees objected, saying basically "you're just saying that about yourself, why should we believe you?"
3) Jesus said "because when two men testify to something it is true, and both myself and the Father testify that I am the light of the world, so it is true".
When read in context I don't think this statement relates to the woman caught in adultery at all.
Now, I'm the first to admit that I could be wrong, so if I'm wrong please show me! Just remember that Jesus never sinned, so He cannot have disobeyed the Mosaic law. If the law required that he stone this woman, and he refused, as far as I can see that would make him a sinner and our hope of salvation would be in vain. But do correct me if I'm wrong.