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Matthew 19

NickF

Seasoned Member
Real Person
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As I feel more and more led to do. I'm staying out of arguments and debate. Instead I'm starting threads about the topic that sparks an interest in me. Publishing my thoughts and perspective on the matter and looking for commentary.

Matthew 19​

1 And it came to pass, that when Jesus had finished these sayings, he departed from Galilee, and came into the coasts of Judaea beyond Jordan;
2 And great multitudes followed him; and he healed them there.
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.

The question the pharisees asked was about "putting away" apolyō.
We must be careful to not fall into the same trap the pharisees were setting for Jesus. They asked if it was acceptable to "send away" your wife for any reason whatsoever.

They avoided the whole process of send away and give the writing of a bill of divorcement. And they added "for any reason". Their question was like it normally was, about the letter of the law rather than the spirit of the law.

Part of the whole trap was the fact that they were asking if it was ok to do something that was not permitted. You can't just kick a wife out and stop providing for her without just cause. She would be destitute and have the choice often between starvation and death or to find protection and providence from another man. If she sought the protection and providence of another man, she would be essentially forced by her husband into adultery. He would be guilty of the crime he forced her into.

Jesus goes on to explain if you marry a woman like that (sent away from her husband without a divorce) you commit adultery. The reason should be obvious. If she has just been sent away, she is not divorced, and not freed from the law of her husband. You would be committing adultery. She has not been properly divorced (apostasion & apolyō) She must be sent away AND given a writing of a bill of divorcement, apolyo AND apostasion. This distinction is critical because these words are different and mean different things. Jesus did not divorce a bunch of people who came to hear Him teach. He sent them away.

Matthew 19​

1 And it came to pass, that when Jesus had finished these sayings, he departed from Galilee, and came into the coasts of Judaea beyond Jordan;
2 And great multitudes followed him; and he healed them there.
3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
They omitted the divorcement part, and instead only asked about sending her away for any reason.
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
The two shall unite their bodies. God joins them together and the purpose is to stay joined and never separate that covenant union.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Here they acknowledge there is a two part process to the matter.
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
Jesus explains the design of marriage is to stay together.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery:
You can put away a wife for the cause of sexual sin and marry another. IF you put away a wife for any other reason and marry another, you have caused her to commit adultery, the sin is on your head. Putting away is sending her away, or in the case of some wives who have committed fornication, the man may put her away and refuse marital duties lawfully as David did with some of his.
and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
If you marry a woman who is only put away, she is still under the law of her husband and not free to marry, it would be adultery because she is not free to remarry.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
 
You can put away a wife for the cause of sexual sin and marry another. IF you put away a wife for any other reason and marry another, you have caused her to commit adultery, the sin is on your head.
And if you marry another (ἄλλην, v:19) woman of that sort, you commit adultery because she remains married to another man.
 
From Mark 10 verse 11 (NKJV) – thorny issue for the monogamy-only crowd to answer:

Please choose one…

Choice #1 He who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her

Choice #2 He who keeps his wife and marries another commits adultery against her

One of those choices looks to me like it is from God,

and…

One of those choices looks to me like it is not from God.

Do you think we can use our bibles to verify which one is from God?

What do you think we should do with one if we cannot verify it is from God?

Why?
 
Do you think we can use our bibles to verify which one is from God?
Easy. Has been obvious since before the Twisting.

If it CONTRADICTS His own Word, then somebody's lying - and it ISN'T Him.

Which makes this a non-issue:
What do you think we should do with one if we cannot verify it is from God?
 
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