Ok, so let me give hypotheticals.
I have a daughter who is convinced by a boy to send nudes or sext. Has he known her now? Is he to marry her? Are they one flesh? Is she still a virgin? Am I to stone her at my steps for playing the harlot?
We see the mentioning of a proof of virginity being a cloth from the wedding night. If my son finds out that the girl he married secretly was an OF model, never having been with a man but seen by many, have they known her? Is she still a virgin as long as the cloth is able to serve as proof?
These acts carry no direct consequences of children, no seed was exchanged, is the woman still the harlot? or a prostitute? Never having received any seed from a man has she been defiled?
If two parents are married, have a child and get divorced, the woman goes off and gets pregnant by another man but does not marry him. Can the first husband take her back? Or is she defiled? She never married the man, maybe she became a prostitute maybe she was used, but she was never betrothed to the man? Or what if she was betrothed and he called it off, is she divorced?
Everything I can find revolves around the exchange of seed or its potential to have happened. HOWEVER there are other mentions of more strict sexual things such as uncovering the nakedness of a sibling or relative.
Look at the Hebrew & Greek behind the words, rather than getting caught up on the terms used by translators. If you focus on the latter, your interpretations will differ depending on what translation you use and the assumptions of those translators. What matters is the choice of words by the original author.
Having said that, these euphemisms are largely in the original text, and you'll see them more accurately if you focus on that. This will actually serve your intent better.
This is what I am getting at, in Leviticus 20 alone there are 4 different words used for "to lie", with different words used for "to take", "to uncover nakedness", "copulate" is used in some but not others all are often used together in the same sentence to help clarify the scenario of what is going on. Most of which carry a death sentence, but all of which are intentional acts, and all which are made towards specifically named entities. You want to lump these things all together as a catch all but I think it is important to actually know the boundaries because they are stated. They aren't written as a catch all, are we to assume all mean sexual intercourse, when it would seem some mean less than that and others may mean more.
Look at the word used to translate "to take" in Leviticus 20:14 and 17. It implies an act being intentionally committed by the man, using forceful removal, not necessarily a seduction or an agreement between both parties. However notice that the woman also suffers the consequences of his actions. The result is obviously adultery on his part, however based on the word used to translate "to take" it is not implied the woman was cooperative. The wording does not consider the status of the woman's virginity either, like Deut 22:23-29 does, for what could be a similar situation, but we do see a similarity of punishment for the woman in the city vs the woman in the country.
The word used "to take" and "to lie" are the same words used when Yah told David he was going "to take" David's "wives". Which is precisely what Absalom does 4 chapters later. With David's 10 "concubines", who are then put away as widows (because they are defiled?). We are not told of a get being given or a divorce happening, yet they are treated as defiled after Absolom "Went in unto them" (another word).
