brYce said:
Yeah, I certainly believe that circumcision is for non-Jews too. Careful examination of Paul's arguments against the Rabbinic doctrines concerning proselytes reveals that he was not arguing against the commandment of Hashem to circumcise. He argued against the insistence of those who followed the Rabbinic teachings that a non-Jew must become a Jew through a man-made ritual. The Rabbis taught (and still teach) that a non-Jew can become
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.
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All of this is wrong, but it was insisted on by those who thought it was right because they believed that only those who become Jews can be saved. The Torah contains no provisions for a non-Jew to become a Jew. Instead, the Torah is clear that a non-Jew is also obligated to live according to His commandments.
Paul did not oppose the commandment of circumcision, rather, he opposed the ritual of making proselytes.
Hi Bryce,
This is an old message, but I'm curious where you see this in Scripture.
I read in Acts 15:
"But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, that it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the law of Moses. And the apostles and elders came together for to consider of this matter." (Acts 15:5-6)
The apostles and elders were considering the matter of whether it was "needful" for Gentiles to be circumcised and that the Gentiles keep the Law of Moses. The answer was:
"Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment: It seemed good unto us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men unto you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul, men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ. We have sent therefore Judas and Silas, who shall also tell you the same things by mouth. For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things; that ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well." (Acts 15:24-29)
So, the end result was that circumcision and keeping the Law were not needful/necessary.
However, I have heard it said that they were talking about the Oral Law, not the Mosaic Law that was written. I'd like to know your side of the story, but I have a serious problem with this.
First of all, whether its the Oral Law or not, it plainly says that they did NOT have to be circumcised. There's not really any reasonable way to get around that, if one believes the actual words of this passage and does not add to it.
Second, it says plainly, "Law of Moses". That's the same phrase used for the written Law in the Old Testament and the New in many places. How can we then differentiate between the Oral and Written if the same phrase is used? In fact, how can we invoke the Oral Law at all, when there is no evidence of it at all? It seems to me that one has to insert the idea into the passage in order to come up with that idea. It seems to me that this comes from one's assumptions rather than from the text itself.
I'm looking forward to your explanation. Thanks.
John for Christ