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This was in my sons history lesson this morning

It's not talking about equality of provision, but status. Often these second wives were previously slaves. The first wife is to retain her stature, honor, and authority in the household (or something like that).

146. If a man takes a wife and she gives this man a maid-servant as a childbearer and the maid-servant does bear him children, then this maid assumes equality with the wife; because she has borne him children, her master shall not sell her for money, but he may keep her as a slave, reckoning her among the maid-servants.
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To expound on the dynamic at play here, the inverse can also occur...

141. If a man's wife, who lives in his house, wishes to leave to engage in business, plunging them into debt, trying to ruin her house, and neglecting her husband, and is judicially convicted, if her husband wants a divorce, she may go on her way, and he gives her nothing as a gift of release. If her husband does not wish to release her, and instead chooses to take another wife, the first wife shall remain as servant in her husband's house
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which should bring to mind Prov 14:1. Law 142 & 143 also touch on similar situations with wives but doesn't touch on the maidservant issue.
 
cnystrom said:
One problem with inequality of status is that it often leads to inequality with provision. :)
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Provision comes from the man, they're all lesser status compared to him. This probably has more to do within the household and public. But I could be wrong; not a lot of good info on a culture that ancient.
 
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