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Divorce and Remarriage

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Fairlight said:
God can certainly forgive anything BUT a person needs to appropriate that forgiveness. In order for that to happen they must first repent of their sin. Authentic repentence, by definition must actually include some "REPENTENCE" !!!! That means making a complete 180 and NOT continuing in any deliberate, habitual sin. I don't know why this is being criticised ? This is basic "Christianity 101".
Apparently, not all Christians are aware of this fact. Pick any sin, and as long as one claims to be covered by the blood, they believe they can continue in the sin without eternal consequence. I've actually had self-proclaimed Believers tell me, "Even if you can PROVE it is a continuous sin, all my sins are forgiven anyway, so I can live however I want. Everything is lawful for me!" Perhaps a primer on the nature of repentance and forgiveness is in order. It's so sad, but in the western Christian church, we have all become quite adept at justifying whatever sin we want to continue in. It's like we'll believe the Bible - UNTIL what it says conflicts with what we want to do.

In His love,
David
 
David it is for a lack of knowledge that the people of GOD are destroyed. Whoremongers and adulterers GOD will judge — not man. Please consider my words from another network in address to a certain lady friend about a man who did continually persecute me and likely will again:

I was explaining how that there is a brother who often phones me, sometimes three to four times a day, insisting that I am living in adultery. I thank GOD for giving me a means of using voice mail to answer his calls at my own personal discretion. This fellow has yet to provide me with one scripture that plainly states that I am indeed living in adultery. I suppose I will never fully understand why some people insist on only embracing partial truth in the scriptures. He cited Mark 10 to me to the exclusion of all other scripture, as though this proved his point. So many people do this sort of thing. People today often assume much while knowing precious little. Howbeit, Mark 10, in and of itself, still does not prove that I am in adultery. I am deeply concerned about the believers inability to read the scripture precisely as it is written. He focused on verses eleven and twelve to make his non-existent point. Here are the verses:

Mark 10

11 And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.

12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

This alleged brother in the LORD actually used the verses cited above to establish his false claim that I live in adultery and failed miserably in so doing. He already knew that I put away no wife well beforehand. In fact he knows me better than 99% of most people I bother to talk to. Yet he insists that I live in adultery even though the precedent in both of these verses is all hinged upon the "PUTTING AWAY" of a spouse. What ignorance! GOD knows I have wept greviously and have brought forth many lamentations unto my LORD for such blatant ignorance (lack of knowledge) of His People. How rarely it is that anyone online actually asks me whether or not I even live with my wives! I suppose it is easier to assume the worst. Condemn now and ask questions later, seems to be the general policy. What I find disturbing is that this brother in the LORD who has seen me in the flesh at least as many times as the wife of my youth has seen my beloved Hope, would be so blind as to dare approach me with such a false accusation. He knows the whole story because I told him the whole story and he lives only a two hour drive from here. He has absolutely no reason to assume a worst case scenario because he already knows the truth! It can only mean one thing: Taking a second wife means "putting away" the first in his mind. Well of course I certainly make, nor made, no action to put away either of my wives so clearly the above scriptures do NOT apply to my situation. I realize this is likely also a rather personal question: To ask whether one lives with their spouse; yet I should think that if any would be so bold as to make any judgment concerning my personal lifestyle that they should at least be able to support their judgment of me with scripture.

I do not dispute that the words of JESUS in the Book of Mark, Chapter Ten, are true. For example, JESUS plainly says, in verse eleven, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. Now I hardly see how that this situation applies to me since I have never put away any wife since the day I first married the wife of my youth in April of 1982 and again, by writ of civil contract, in September of 1984, so according to Canadian legal (but not necessarily lawful) terminology she is still my wife. It certainly gets complicated when the laws of my particular Province officially recognize COMMON-LAW MARRIAGE as lawful marriage; for this very Law of the Land would then inadvertantly allow for yet a second spouse by legal definition while all the EQUIVALENCY to MARRIAGE laws only reinforce the various ALBERTA COMMON-LAW MARRIAGE laws regarding taxation, child support, financial obligation, and guardianship of offspring. So in 2007 the Federal government has tried to reconcile this inconsistancy by employing what they now call "Commonlaw Relationship" (Notice it isn't called marriage anymore. It's a "relationship") laws due to recent Canadian "same-sex marriage" legislation. I keep telling people that LEGAL is not necessarily LAWFUL but it generally reaches them like water on a duck's back despite the fact that all the world is rife with unlawful legislation. Do you see what is happening here? The so-called union between Adam and Steve by writ of contract is now about to be considered MORE VALID than a Common-law Marriage between Adam and Eve! You know . . . Adam and Eve. . . Marriage in the Sight of GOD, as it was FROM THE BEGINNING! We are expected to believe that their marriage was not as "legitimate" as Adam and Steve's feces-coated, contractual "relationship". Friend, this is blasphemy. Now that is precisely what comes of making merchandise of marriage by means of civil contract: Legalized whoredom to Pimp Daddy Caesar. The lawyers have us coming and going. Woe unto you lawyers! said JESUS.

Now the Canadian government says the wife of my youth is still my wife. GOD says she is still my wife. I say she is still my wife. . . I will also let her speak for herself because if I try to speak for her, the Neo-Feminists will be all over me. One thing is indeed certain: Because I put away neither one of my beloved wives according to the word of GOD I do most certainly have two wives. This is not a sin but womanizing and harlotry are indeed sins as it is written in the volume of the Book, "whoremongers and adulterers GOD will judge". Nowhere, in the entire Volume of the Book, does the LORD GOD even once call the blessed state of BIBLICAL BIGAMY adultery. Yet throughout the dispensations GOD has honoured, recognized, and regulated such marriages time after time. Adultery, on the other hand, is when a man fails to keep his hands off another man's wife! Fornication is whoredom! If people simply embraced all of what thus saith the LORD then life would certainly go a good deal more smoother for Society than it does; but as it is written in the volume of the BOOK, pride cometh before the falling.

The Jezebel spirit has no desire to humble itself but would make itself equal to GOD in the incarnation of a woman, even to such an extent that it has frequently declared itself the "Mother of GOD" to be worshiped and adored as the "one and only" and the head of all that is holy. This is the spirit of Neo-Feminism. Women in general desire Society to believe that what is fit for the gander is also fit for the goose and all too often the woman who believes such heresy becomes a silly goose for indulging in this sort of hogwash. Truth be told, men have privileges that women do not and women have privileges that men are not entitled to: One of them just happens to be motherhood. Alas, even this is being frowned upon by too many women today even as husbandhood and fatherhood is being frowned upon by the males of this generation. It should be clear that Society in general has scorned and despised all that is holy and good in the sight of GOD, biblical bigamy being no exception. I have repeatedly witnessed the emulations of churchly vanity more times than I care to recall.

There is certainly a good deal more world in the church than there is any church in the world. This same brother I mentioned told me that it would have been better for me to find a whore and have my way with her instead of taking a second wife! He stated that at least I could repent afterward; but isn't this really the typical attitude of the majority of church-goers today? I mean, not many come straight out and say it, but it isn't hard to read between the lines: It's okay to go and sin some more just as long as we repent afterward and keep the money in the collection plate. This is what they really mean. His views are certainly represented by the majority of churches of this generation as these would prefer whoredom and fornication to commitment and honor toward every woman that one man takes to wife in the sight of GOD, Who never misses a thing. Rather, I did faithfully pledge my love and committment to my new bride in the sight of GOD from the beginning! I was no womanizer. I spoke truly. Yet the churches today declare that whoredom is better. Yea, they would even declare that adultery is better for a man than taking another woman to wife! Why do I say such things? Be CAUSE the churches are full of adultery and they would prefer this to what the LORD GOD calls two wives!

A man in the LORD is entitled by GOD to have more than one wife if he is called of GOD to marry another. Women of western ideology generally cannot accept this truth as it is contrary to everything they have been conditioned by Society to believe. They would think that their husbands are their property but this is nothing short of slavery. Marriage is honourable in all, but not all marriage is honourable. The churches of this generation would encourage whoredom and adultery before they would think to honour what the LORD GOD called wives (plural) of one man. Yes, it is indeed a sign of the times. Yea, there are things that pertain only to men and things that pertain only to women. This is the way that GOD made us from the beginning and both genders must be freely willing to accept their humility and burden in the LORD. The consequences of failing to do so are manifest: Homosexuality, lesbianism, beastiality, gender confusion, trans-gender proclivities, "same sex marriage", etc. Verily, verily, the world loves its own and scorns the things of GOD. Men are not permitted to be men anymore. Women are certainly not permitted to be women. Men don't want to be men anymore and the women are much the same. So many men have asked me, "Why take on the burden of two wives when you can always get it for free?" Nothing from the hand of the devil is free; but the world says that all that is good for the goose is good for the gander and so "gender equality" (an oxymoron) is become the goal. How much more is BIBLICAL BIGAMY despised by the hard-hearted and ungodly of this present world! BUT GOD called it TWO WIVES and never once called it "adultery" and GOD also called it "FOURTEEN WIVES" and never once called it "adultery". Is GOD a liar? Apparently the churches know better than GOD.

According to self-right Puritans I'm in adultery. The scripture clearly states that a man who puts away his wife and then marries another commits adultery AGAINST her. Now this is the only scripture in all of the New Testament that uses the Greek "against her" in conjunction with the term "adultery". There is a very special reason why this special GREEK WORD is used here. Friend, you will never see this particular term, "against" used in the case of the husband in all of the New Testament. The reason for this is be CAUSE a woman cannot CAUSE her husband to commit adultery (further evidence that adultery is not nearly what most people today think it is); but an husband can indeed CAUSE his wife to commit adultery by unlawfully putting her away! No, she does not have the option of receiving another husband as he has the option of receiving wives (plural) if she has been put away unlawfully. This is the very treachery that the LORD condemned ISRAEL for engaging in. GOD hates putting away. That is why it is grevious to me when I am falsely accused by those who bear false witness against me for putting away my wives and for committing adultery when I have done no such thing. In the good LORD's design there is no excuse for adultery (having another man's wife). The spiritual oversight here ignores the biblical fact that while the husband and the wife are both ONE FLESH the wife is not the head of the husband. If the man's "wife" is living in adultery then he is only in adultery with her be CAUSE an adulteress is no man's wife (Romans Seven) but he causes himself to join to an adulteress; for this reason the land (nation) is caused to sin and is greatly polluted says the scripture (Deuteronomy 24:4) but the case is not necessarily so with the husband be CAUSE he is fully permitted of GOD to have wives (plural) if so called. Adultery is always committed of his own volition and he will be answerable for taking another man's wife; but he most certainly can be called of GOD to take another wife. This is scriptural. (See: Matthew 1:20)

If a man has discovered that he is married to a fornicator then he has no godly reason to refrain from letting her go (as opposed to putting her away). GOD has verily called us to peace. 1 Corinthians 7:10-15 explains this implicitly but I have yet to meet a misandrist who does not hate this scriptural truth. The husband certainly has the power to change his marital status with his wife and still remain married to a wife; but his wife's choices in the LORD are either to separate for a time and be reconciled, become an adulteress, or remain celibate until one of them finally dies: except for and saving for the CAUSE of fornication, said JESUS. Now this is important: Many false apostolics and false prophets today are saying things like "no exceptions" to divorce and remarriage in an effort to call it all adultery, thereby serving the unisex agenda so prevalent in modern society. They want us to believe that the things that pertain to men also pertain to women and it's just not true. In effect they're saying that JESUS is a liar. Friend, you will never find the words "adultery against him" in the HOLY BIBLE. So she is NOT the CAUSE of his adultery be CAUSE JESUS made an exception for the husband that he might effectively deal with hardness of heart and lawfully put away his fornicating wife.

The wife, on the other hand, has no such power of authority in the LORD. Instead, the wife (in the LORD) may indeed leave her husband to be reconciled unto him at a later time; but she may not take another husband in the LORD while her husband yet liveth. In the cited scripture above and below the wife is simply an adulteress if she commits adultery and no more a wife from that day forward until her husband dies. That's it. There is no "adultery against him". Whereas the husband has the power to receive as many wives into his bosom as the LORD GOD gives him, the wife only has the privilege of receiving one husband into her bosom and she may not lawfully receive another while her husband yet lives! Nonetheless the common oversight here excludes the premise that the man she puts away is indeed her husband. (See: Romans Seven). Howbeit she may indeed lawfully marry another husband (in the LORD) if she is divorced for just CAUSE. (Matthew 19:9) Now that is how GOD dealt with the hardness of heart, telling Moses to establish this very law concerning divorcement among his people; but the people corrupted GOD's law in the mouth of Moses, to render the reading "divorcement for every and any cause". Those were not the words of GOD and they were not the words of Moses either. Please do not believe that Moses put words in GOD's mouth. Moses did no such thing. "Moses' Law" was from the Almighty GOD.

Clearly the husband does not commit adultery merely by taking another woman to wife. If that were the case the wife would also be able to CAUSE her husband to commit adultery by commiting adultery against him. There is no chance of this: It is a cop-out that men use in the interests of New World egalitarianism because they would sooner shift the blame and their responsibilty for their manhood upon the head of the woman instead of accepting personal responsibility for their own actions or lack thereof and taking charge of their own lives and families. If the wife isn't handy they'll blame the devil all the while pandering to the gender equality myth when in fact, the husband commits adultery by conjugating with another man's wife! In the case of his own wife the husband commits adultery against her be CAUSE he CAUSETH her to commit adultery by putting her away without just CAUSE. Now this is treachery! People need to read the words of JESUS precisely as they are written:

But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. (Matthew 5:32)

The above scripture proves that JESUS did not disclude Deuteronomy 24 but honoured it even as it is written. There is always a CAUSE involved. I call it the CAUSE CLAUSE. I don't make the rules. They are the words of JESUS. The truth is clear: A man's wife can never CAUSE him to commit adultery against her. He always commits adultery against his wife of his own volition. You will never find a scripture in the New Testament that says that the wife CAUSES her husband to commit adultery or even that she commits adultery against him using that specific Greek word. There are many forms of the Greek for the English word, "against" but the one used in Matthew 5:32 is as follows:

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=1909&version=kjv

For example, we read (see above) that the husband can cause his wife to live in adultery, even without her knowledge, merely by taking another man's wife in marriage! Now this is nothing more than hardness of heart and she should not be forced to endure it. It is fornication of vilest sort and fornication is what JESUS made provision for in His exception rule for the hardness of heart. Now how is it that according to scripture a man can CAUSE his wife to commit adultery and there is no scriptural reference to the wife doing the same unto her husband? I think that this is a very valid question. If I were a MISOGYNIST I might ask the question, "What gives with the double standard?" as do the Neo-Feminist Misandrists. Well, the answer is clear to those who know and love the truth: The husband can lawfully give her a bill of divorcement under the exception clause of CHRIST JESUS. The husband needn't continue living in adultery with his unclean wife. Contrary to popular belief, he still has the power and the authority to put a bill of divorcement into her hand and send her out of his house LAWFULLY. He doesn't even need a lawyer to do this. He can always draw up his own, dated writ stating that he has indeed found some uncleaness in her, sign it, and tell her that she may now be another man's wife, saith the LORD, and then send his fornicating ex-wife out of his house. (Deuteronomy 24:1-5) I jest not. A man of GOD should be prepared to take GOD at His word.

Now I realize that the "old way" was to stone the adulterer and the adulteress together that their blood be upon their own heads in the case of a man who is found in the "very act" of committing adultery with another man's wife; but I also realize that there is some distinction between the standard act of adultery and the more general act of fornication (whoredom). If the writ is not "legal" enough for her preferences then let her take him to court. In the Sight of GOD he has acted in accordance with the GOD's Moral Law and his divorcement is lawful. Should she choose to do so, the ex-wife can use this writ as evidence before the secularist judge. If the judge knows anything about the law he will keep the evidence on file and process it LEGALLY, though he may not be impressed by the delivery of the evidence (then again, he may be amused if he knows what the Book of Deuteronomy says). Certainly the judge must respect the husband's religion according to the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms because the Charter is the Canadian moral code. If he is an honest judge he will also respect the letter of the law.

We can never ignore the words of Christ Jesus concerning the cause and the exception clause be CAUSE He maintains it under the NEW COVENANT (See: Matthew 19:9) GOD does NOT contradict HIS moral law! Ever.

 
Fairlight said:
"Demonic twisting of scriptures" ????
Mark, disagree if you must but Calling David or his article "Demonic", is a bit much ! I don't think David is saying that sin can't be forgiven. God can certainly forgive anything BUT a person needs to appropriate that forgiveness. In order for that to happen they must first repent of their sin. Authentic repentence, by definition must actually include some "REPENTENCE" !!!! That means making a complete 180 and NOT continuing in any deliberate, habitual sin. I don't know why this is being criticised ? This is basic "Christianity 101".
Fairlight

Your comments are interesting, Fairlight, and I will try to give them the detailed response they deserve, although perhaps in reverse order.

But I will start with this. I clearly got angry, during the process of criticism of a flawed, dangerously misleading work. I contended then, and still do, that those specific issues I raised above were ignored (and even that those argument raised in this board in previous threads had been dealt with improperly) and should be addressed before people are condemned.

And I will go no further down that path at this point, because I do not want to defend myself. I appreciate what Edward wrote and quoted above*, and accept his criticism as well. "Let God be True, and every man a liar."

On to "Christianity 101". Edward just posted a single summary, but is so important that it bears repeating:

"...For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins...
...we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all...
...this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
...by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified."


From Genesis One onward, the message of the Torah (which He said clearly will not change 'till "heaven and earth" pass), and the Writings, and the Prophets, and the Gospels, and the Letters, and the Witnesses hinges on Who He Is, and tells what He has done, and will do.

If He has made us clean, and washed us in His blood, who denies that Authority? (Acts 11:9) Does the perfect sacrifice of the blood of our Savior have the power to cleanse us "from ALL unrightousness" or not? Can He make us "new creations in Him", give us a new birth, redeem us, and make us "free indeed", or is He a liar? He even says (through more than one witness, and including Hebrews), "And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more."

That is "Christianity 101", I contend. And it all hinges on whether He IS Who He says He IS, and honors His Covenants.

And it is not complicated, Fairlight. The "continuing in sin" deception is the issue. That fallacy can only be perpetuated by denying so much of "Christianity 101" -- not only that we can be cleansed and reborn -- ONCE!!!! Not as a continual mockery of His sacrifice! -- but also that He provided for divorce. And anyone who would try to deny that "the hardness of our hearts" has been done away with as well needs to take a good look around!

The claim that one "continues in murder" requires a continuing string of bodies, just as continuing in theft mans additional thievery. The twisting in the article is little different from the twisting of those who claim that ANY second marriage of a man while his wife yet lives is "adultery"; they even use most of the very same verses, and draw the same conclusions: "put her away!" Such accusations have been used for centuries to destroy families. Whether those claims "forbidding to marry" constitute a "doctrine of demons" or not, I leave for you to "study for yourself".

Scripture forbids "adding to" His Word, although Pharisees, scribes, and popes, and others who put the "traditions of man" above the commandments of God have done exactly that throughout history. For the Pharisees, "keeping Sabbath" was not enough; they took it upon themselves to define HOW FAR one could walk, they forbade certain mitzvot (healing, for one), and in general added "burdens" that Yeshua renounced. He made His point by not only healing on the Sabbath, but by breaking a number of man-made halacha (rulings) in the process.

Yeshua "continued in sin" by continuing to BREAK THEIR MAN-MADE RULES. Every time His disciples husked grain in their palms on the Sabbath, they condemned Him! He kept His Word, His "Law", perfectly, and taught us discernment by breaking their imitation of it, every chance He had. He made an open mockery of their tradition, and they sought to kill Him for it.

But I will cite Scripture to make the point:
There is no idle Word in His teaching and understanding. When He used clear, distinct terminology to describe the difference between "putting away", and a lawful procedure for ending a marriage Covenant, He did so deliberately (Deut. 24:1, repeated specifically in 24:3). He would not have described a procedure in detail if He did not mean that there is a difference between doing as He commands, and doing otherwise (which is called "rebellion" in English). Yeshua clarified this perfectly (Matthew 5:32, even if the AKJV translators were wrong**). This has been hashed out repeatedly, and I contend that David's article does not do justice to the text, and disingenuously dismisses contrary arguments. But the bottom line is, I will not try to do a better job of clarifying what Yeshua said than He already did -- by His Words and His example.

Finally, a simple example is sufficient to dismiss the "continuing in sin" deception without falling for the "Torah is done away with" counter fallacy of "shall we sin more, that grace might abound?" ...And at this point I started to write an example which illustrates that point. But the point is simple, and needs no example.

If ANYONE is "washed clean", NONE of what came before matters! God says He can even forget, so why is it that we cannot? And if the woman accused of adultery has a "certificate of divorce", and has sought to demonstrate repentance by obedience, how much more so? And if she now knows she has been forgiven, and is now in Covenant with a believing man who covers her, who is it that accuses her of adultery? Gather up those stones.

I find it ironic that it is those who claim that "the Law has been done away with" who so often the legalistically seek to add burdens to it, and put others "under" it -- even those not "under" their authority!

The "burden of proof" must be on the Accuser. One who takes it upon himself to claim that another man's wife is an adulterer, and thus threatens his marriage, his wife, and his house, should -- as Scripture witnesses repeatedly -- be especially careful before "forbidding to marry", or -- arguably worse still -- commanding a wife to "depart" from a husband, or a husband to "put her away". How dare some do what Yeshua did not (John 8:11) -- and without the "testimony of two or three witnesses" besides!

God's Word makes it clear that there is NO sin that he cannot cleanse, through His blood. There is NO sin that He is not able to forget.

"Let God be True, and every man a liar."


Blessings in Him,

Mark


---------------------------------
* WAY above - where he quoted at length from Hebrews. You folks must type fastern' I... :D

** I'll try to edit a pointer in later. I know I'm already over a full page behind.
 
Edward the Elder said:
He already knew that I put away no wife well beforehand. In fact he knows me better than 99% of most people I bother to talk to. Yet he insists that I live in adultery even though the precedent in both of these verses is all hinged upon the "PUTTING AWAY" of a spouse. What ignorance!
You'll get no disagreement from me. If you never put away a wife, and you haven't married another man's wife, then there is no way you can be in an adulterous marriage. The guy that has been telling you this is assuming that all marital separation and remarriage results in adultery, which is not what Scripture says either.

This is what Scripture teaches results in adultery:

Adulterous marriage for the MAN:

(1) A man may not marry a wife who separated from her living husband. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11)
(2) A man may not marry a put away wife while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39)
(3) A man may not take another wife after having put away a wife (while she still lives?) (Mt. 19:9, Mk. 10:11, Lk. 16:18)

Adulterous marriage for the WOMAN:

(4) A wife who separated from her husband may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11)
(5) A put away wife may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39)

Always in His love,
David
 
Okay, Mark. Since we are both on line now is a good opportunity to ask you about Matthew 5:32. In what way were the translators wrong? I'm not clear on this. I think I know what you mean but I don't wish to assume anything here. Also, just for the sake of clarity, are you saying that a woman can commit adultery, go repent and be baptized, go and commit adultery again and then go and repent and be baptized perpetually and it's all good? Help me out here.
 
djanakes said:
Edward the Elder said:
He already knew that I put away no wife well beforehand. In fact he knows me better than 99% of most people I bother to talk to. Yet he insists that I live in adultery even though the precedent in both of these verses is all hinged upon the "PUTTING AWAY" of a spouse. What ignorance!
You'll get no disagreement from me. If you never put away a wife, and you haven't married another man's wife, then there is no way you can be in an adulterous marriage. The guy that has been telling you this is assuming that all marital separation and remarriage results in adultery, which is not what Scripture says either.

This is what Scripture teaches results in adultery:

Adulterous marriage for the MAN:

(1) A man may not marry a wife who separated from her living husband. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11)
(2) A man may not marry a put away wife while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39)
(3) A man may not take another wife after having put away a wife (while she still lives?) (Mt. 19:9, Mk. 10:11, Lk. 16:18)

Adulterous marriage for the WOMAN:

(4) A wife who separated from her husband may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11)
(5) A put away wife may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39)

Always in His love,
David

God bless you, David. I would likely modify the above statements myself somewhat with resort to the CAUSE CLAUSE as stated in the somewhat lengthy missive I shared above. It would probably read something like this:

This is what Scripture teaches results in adultery:

Adulterous marriage for the MAN:

(1) A man may not marry a wife who separated from her living husband. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11) — except it be for fornication.
(2) A man may not marry a put away wife while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39) — except it be for fornication.
(3) A man may not take another wife after having put away a wife (while she still lives?) (Mt. 19:9, Mk. 10:11, Lk. 16:18) — except it be for fornication.


Adulterous marriage for the WOMAN:

(4) A wife who separated from her husband may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11) — except that she is divorced for fornication.
(5) A put away wife may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39) — except that she is divorced for fornication.


Yup. I confess that CAUSE clause can really make for muddy waters. Here is my approach to it and it needs to be understood very CAREFULLY. There is nothing wrong with what you stated, David, if we bear in mind that the woman in question is INDEED a wife. The only reason I brought forth the exception is to make a very valuable point: In all the cases cited the woman MUST be a true, bona fide WIFE. The core to all this confusion lies in our determination of the word "WIFE". Yes, a man can marry an whore, but that certainly doesn't make her his wife. So with this knowledge, your statement, I find, is faultless. YET for the sakes of other readers I fear (yes, indeed) that they may not know the difference between the terms: whore, harlot, and wife. This opens up a great can of worms but alas, if men don't have this terminology down correctly they will continually find themselves in more trouble than was even necessary to take any woman to wife in the first place. I suspect you know the difference but how many today actually know what DETERMINES it. I suspect not many.

GOD bless

Edward
 
Mark C said:
If ANYONE is "washed clean", NONE of what came before matters! God says He can even forget, so why is it that we cannot?
Nobody is disputing whether a Believer is washed clean, nor that anything of their past sin matters. God DOES forget past sins and remembers them no more. As far as I can tell, we are ALL in agreement on this point.

The issue that is being side-stepped is that adultery does not suddenly become righteous when someone confesses their sin. To remain in adultery is to remain in sin. If a man is sleeping with his next-door neighbor's wife on a continual basis, can he simply ask for forgiveness and continue doing what he's doing? If none of what came before matters, if God says He can even forget, then why should we condemn the man still sleeping with his neighbor's wife?

Let's not forget the example of the two men married to one another. Once they come to Jesus in repentance, are they now free to continue in their marriage, safe in the knowledge that they have repented of their past sodomy and are now free to remain in a blessed marriage? Does this make sense to ANYONE?!?

Whether we think adulterous remarriage is a myth or a fact, let's first get it straight on THESE issues. Otherwise, we might as well not even concern ourselves with preaching repentance at all.

Love in Him,
David
 
Edward the Elder said:
Adulterous marriage for the MAN:

(1) A man may not marry a wife who separated from her living husband. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11) — except it be for fornication.
(2) A man may not marry a put away wife while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39) — except it be for fornication.
(3) A man may not take another wife after having put away a wife (while she still lives?) (Mt. 19:9, Mk. 10:11, Lk. 16:18) — except it be for fornication.


Adulterous marriage for the WOMAN:

(4) A wife who separated from her husband may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mk. 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:10-11) — except that she is divorced for fornication.
(5) A put away wife may not marry anyone else while her husband still lives. (Mt. 5:32, Mt. 19:9, Lk. 16:18, Rom. 7:2-3, 1 Cor. 7:39) — except that she is divorced for fornication.
In my articles on divorce and remarriage, I explained where the exception clause, at least in most cases in our modern culture, would never be applicable. Essentially, where prior whoring (virginity fraud) DID occur, the husband puts her away when he discovers it, the same as if she was an illegitimate wife (like marrying a sister). Only in such cases of illegitimate marriage does she not have a living husband and it's the same as if she's simply been defiled. She is free to marry another only under such circumstances. Other than for this singular exception, she cannot remarry so long as her husband lives.

Always in His love,
David
 
djanakes said:
Mark C said:
If ANYONE is "washed clean", NONE of what came before matters! God says He can even forget, so why is it that we cannot?
Nobody is disputing whether a Believer is washed clean, nor that anything of their past sin matters. God DOES forget past sins and remembers them no more. As far as I can tell, we are ALL in agreement on this point.

The issue that is being side-stepped is that adultery does not suddenly become righteous when someone confesses their sin. To remain in adultery is to remain in sin. If a man is sleeping with his next-door neighbor's wife on a continual basis, can he simply ask for forgiveness and continue doing what he's doing? If none of what came before matters, if God says He can even forget, then why should we condemn the man still sleeping with his neighbor's wife?

Let's not forget the example of the two men married to one another. Once they come to Jesus in repentance, are they now free to continue in their marriage, safe in the knowledge that they have repented of their past sodomy and are now free to remain in a blessed marriage? Does this make sense to ANYONE?!?

Whether we think adulterous remarriage is a myth or a fact, let's first get it straight on THESE issues. Otherwise, we might as well not even concern ourselves with preaching repentance at all.

Love in Him,
David

It certainly makes sense to me. JESUS said to go and sin no more. The writ of divorcement was granted by GOD to the people from the hand of Moses for the HARDNESS of HEART. I am so tired of people declaring that MOSES put words in GOD's mouth. Before I even took a second wife I had to do some very deep soul-searching. One of the decisions I made was that if at any time one of them asked me for a divorce I would not hesitate. I would draw up the bill myself with my own hand and give it to her immediately, that same day. The reason being that her heart would already be unclean regardless of the reason for her asking. Myself, I find it hard to imagine offering such a thing without CAUSE. To the best of my knowledge I have no cause to divorce either of my wives. I can only hope that it remains that way. Nonetheless I cannot look to my wives to keep it so, but I must look to GOD to preserve my marriage and my relationship to these ladies. There is indeed a protocol involved in this and I suspect that many fail to grasp it even at the best of times.

GOD BLESS

Edward
 
I'd have to agree with you here. A lot of Christians nowadays are only looking for a feel good experience and get high from a worship service instead of getting instruction, teaching, and learning how to efficiently and righteously lead their lives. Don't get me wrong though. I'm not saying that it's wrong to feel good when you're on the right path, but I do think it's wrong to seek just a feel good experience. Anybody also see the resemblence in the modern day hollywood concept of romantic love and the subsequent divorce rate. If you just want a feel good experience then go find a piece of moist homemade cheesecake. Carnegie deli in New York has some exceptionally euphoric cheesecake by the way.

2 Timothy 4:3 -
3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
4  And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.
 
djanakes said:
Edward the Elder said:
Adulterous marriage for the MAN: In my articles on divorce and remarriage, I explained where the exception clause, at least in most cases in our modern culture, would never be applicable. Essentially, where prior whoring (virginity fraud) DID occur, the husband puts her away when he discovers it, the same as if she was an illegitimate wife (like marrying a sister). Only in such cases of illegitimate marriage does she not have a living husband and it's the same as if she's simply been defiled. She is free to marry another only under such circumstances. Other than for this singular exception, she cannot remarry so long as her husband lives.

Always in His love,
David

Praise the LORD. The word of GOD stands firm. The "exception clause" still stands today as much as it did in the days of MOSES and when Christ declared it yet again, upon the mount, filling up the cup of the law to the very brim. Fornication is indeed whoredom and except that the woman has repented of her whoredom (even as her husband, hopefully, has likewise repented of his) she is still an whore. She is no wife. Just saying so does not make it so. This is the area we are moving toward now, David: What actually CONSTITUTES the status of a LAWFUL WIFE. I believe ROMANS SEVEN clarifies the matter well enough. Any non-virgin woman who has repented of her fornication and marries AGAIN to ANOTHER MAN may be what GOD calls "another man's wife". The reason for this is because she is LOOSED from the LAW of her husband; but a virgin woman who marries can never be called "another man's wife". She is indeed the wife of the man she marries and her husband may not put her away all his days — except it be for fornication (whoredom). Divorcement is not the same thing as the putting away. They are different words and they mean different things. Likewise, rings and vows and paper writ do NOT a marriage make and DIVORCEMENT for every and any cause does not ABSOLVE any man of his duty of marriage to a wife. There is only ONE CAUSE for divorcement: Fornication. The wife who has been wrongfully put away is STILL the wife of the husband who put her away, thereby CAUSING her to commit adultery. In other words, he COMMITTS ADULTERY AGAINST HER! Shame on him!

The whole thing is so simple it's complex. Admittedly, our English Slanguage plays a role in rendering it so. I'm still waiting for you to show me where the translators of the AKJV went arwry with Matthew 5:32. Please allow me to relate a story to you about a man I know well who was very concerned that he was in adultery. He met a woman whom he joined with in the flesh and regarded her as his wife. They were married for many years until a communication in the mail came in. It was her former husband asking her to visit him because he was on his death bed. YET her former husband had never granted her a writ of divorcement. Technically, via secular government law, she was still his "wife". My friend was beside himself until I told him something to this effect. "Sir, you did not marry another man's wife. You married a whore. First she committed adultery. That makes her an adulteress. Then she took another, and yet another, and then even yet another before she met you. That makes her both an adulteress and an whore. You never truly took this woman to wife, not because you committed adultery with her, but because she was an whore. She had already moved beyond the adulteress stage of the game by the time she met you. She was no longer another man's wife because she was an adulteress and an whore long before you ever laid eyes on her. GOD's law states that she cannot be called a wife afterwhich she commits adultery. She cannot be called both a wife and an adulteress in the same breath. She must be one or the other. She cannot be both. Now I know this man very well. She also left him for another and then another. To this day, to the best of my knowledge, eventhough she lived with him for ten years, she has never fully repented of her whorish ways. I will say this much about that: She was never that man's wife and that man did not commit adultery with her but he did certainly fornicate with her over the course of those ten years. He thought she was his wife. Let the young men and young women bear this in mind: MARRIAGE is honourable in all, in the sight of GOD and the bed undefiled. Whoremongers and adulterers GOD will judge. Not all marriage is honourable. The words, "marriage is honourable in all" DO NOT translate to the words "all marriage is honourable". I hope this helps.

GOD BLESS

Edward
 
Okay, Mark. Since we are both on line now is a good opportunity to ask you about Matthew 5:32. In what way were the translators wrong?

I'm still way behind at this point, Edward - sorry; text is appearing faster than I can respond, and I keep getting interrupted here at home anyway. :)

I know you are an "AKJV" man, so I had intended to point this out anyway in an email. (David and I have hashed this out at length in the past, so I would not revisit this otherwise. I cannot reject the claim that God's careful distinction between "putting away" and His specified process for lawful divorce is meaningless any more strongly than I already have.) But I know others reading here may not have seen the earlier citations, either - so here goes:

(This is from Blue Letter Bible, but any of the Greek texts and concordances show the issue. It doesn't even have to be pointed out that Yeshua almost certainly spoke in Hebrew or Aramaic, and that the Greek is itself one additional layer of translation, to make the case. And apologies for the tabs - all my efforts to get the original spacing back were rebuffed by the tools. :oops: )

Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:

Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

[ This second usage of the same word translated as "PUT AWAY" the first time, is now rendered as "DIVORCED". - MC ]


Lexicon / Concordance for Matthew 5:32

5:32 Ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὑτοῦ, παρεκτὸς λόγου πορνείας, ποιεῖ αὐτὴν μοιχᾶσθαι καὶ ὃς ἐὰν ἀπολελυμένην γαμήσῃ, μοιχᾶται (Textus Receptus)

English (KJV) (Help) Strong's Root Form (Greek) Tense

But g1161 δέ de
I g1473 ἐγώ egō
say g3004 λέγω legō
unto you, g5213 ὑμῖν hymin
That g3754 ὅτι hoti
whosoever g3739 ὅς hos
(Multiple Strong's numbers representing the English text.) g302 ἄν an
shall put away g630 ἀπολύω apolyō
his g846 αὐτός autos
wife, g1135 γυνή gynē
saving g3924 παρεκτός parektos
for the cause g3056 λόγος logos
of fornication, g4202 πορνεία porneia
causeth g4160 ποιέω poieō
her g846 αὐτός autos
to commit adultery: g3429 μοιχάω moichaō
and g2532 καί kai
whosoever g3739 ὅς hos
(Multiple Strong's numbers representing the English text. ) g1437 ἐάν ean
shall marry g1060 γαμέω gameō
her that is divorced g630 ἀπολύω apolyō
committeth adultery. g3429 μοιχάω moichaō

5:32 ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι πᾶς ὁ ἀπολύων τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ παρεκτὸς λόγου πορνείας ποιεῖ αὐτὴν μοιχευθῆναι καὶ ὃς ἐὰν ἀπολελυμένην γαμήσῃ μοιχᾶται (GNT Morph)

You have correctly pointed out elsewhere that God uses the different words carefully in the Hebrew. I note here again that, at least in the Greek, our Savior clearly maintains that distinction.


Blessings,

Mark
 
Mark C said:
You have correctly pointed out elsewhere that God uses the different words carefully in the Hebrew. I note here again that, at least in the Greek, our Savior clearly maintains that distinction.
Ummm....what distinction exactly do you see in Matt. 5:31-32? He uses the exact same Greek word in each case of putting away, whether the Greek word "apoluo" is translated into English as "put away" or "divorce". It's still the same word in the original Greek.

"And it has been said, 'Whoever APOLUO his wife, let him give her a APOSTASION.' But I say to you that whoever APOLUO his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been APOLUO commits adultery." (Matthew 5:31-32, The Scriptures)

The "apostation" is simply the written certificate of divorcement that he is required to give to the woman. "apoluo" is the actual act of putting her away (which itself requires the "apostation" to be given to her). The only word in this passage for the actual action of marital separation is "apoluo". What distinction between "apoluo" and "apoluo" do you think you see here?

Love in Him,
David
 
Ummm....what distinction exactly do you see in Matt. 5:31-32? He uses the exact same Greek word in each case of putting away, whether the Greek word "apoluo" is translated into English as "put away" or "divorce". It's still the same word in the original Greek.

He uses the exact same Greek word in each case, whether the word (for animal) is translated into English as "animal" or "horse".


Any further comment noting that a distinction is made by faithfully translating words which differentiate between the GENERAL and the SPECIFIC is clearly pointless, if not insulting.

And repeating over and over again that "horse" and "animal" mean the same thing does not make it so, any more than it makes the person stupid who doesn't believe it.


False premises lead to faulty conclusions.
 
Mark C said:
He uses the exact same Greek word in each case, whether the word (for animal) is translated into English as "animal" or "horse".
WHAT?!? What are you talking about?? Are you just pulling my chain now? :? You seriously think one usage of "apoluo" is different from the next? You cannot take the exact same Greek word, used in the exact same passage, and make it mean two totally different concepts simply because you'd wish it to be so. Regarding marital separation, IT NEVER CHANGES ITS MEANING!

630. apoluo, ap-ol-oo'-o; from 575 and 3089; to free fully, i.e. (lit.) relieve, release, dismiss (reflex. depart), or (fig.) let die, pardon, or (spec.) divorce:- (let) depart, dismiss, divorce, forgive, let go, loose, put (send) away, release, set at liberty.

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever APOLUO his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been APOLUO commits adultery."

We can translate "apoluo" into anything you like, but it doesn't change it's meaning from one usage to the next. If you prefer to translate "apoluo" into English as "divorce", then the passage says:

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever DIVORCES his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been DIVORCED commits adultery."

If you prefer to translate "apoluo" into English as "separate", then the passage says:

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever SEPARATES his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been SEPARATED commits adultery."

If you prefer to translate "apoluo" into English as "put away", then the passage says:

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever PUTS AWAY his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been PUT AWAY commits adultery."

If you prefer to translate "apoluo" into English as "let go", then the passage says:

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever LETS GO his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been LET GO commits adultery."

Frankly, I don't really care what SINGLE TERM we decide on, just as long as you don't go trying to change its definition in mid-sentence. This is the very reason I insisted on sticking with the original Hebrew and Greek text, because the whole false distinction falls apart the second we look at the original words in the text. Whatever you want to call "apoluo", let's pick a word and stick with it.

Mark C said:
False premises lead to faulty conclusions.
Of this, I have no doubt. I love you brother, but I honestly cannot comprehend how you are reading Scripture.

In His love,
David
 
WHAT?!? What are you talking about?? Are you just pulling my chain now? :? You seriously think one usage of "apoluo" is different from the next?

Sigh. Of course not, and this has been one of my central criticisms of your arguments.

If you prefer to translate "apoluo" into English as "put away", then the passage says:

Mt. 5:32: "But I say to you that whoever PUTS AWAY his wife, except for the matter of whoring, makes her commit adultery. And whoever marries a woman who has been PUT AWAY commits adultery."

Let's go with that one, David; it is correct. And it happens to be exactly what I've been saying all along. It is precisely what the article I have posted more than once carefully documents. Now that you have written it yourself, perhaps you will see it.

Now read Part 1 of your article, which contains this:

In the end, this entire argument comes down to trying to differentiate between "putting away" and "divorce" by making it seem like these are two distinct concepts, even though Biblically they are identical. There is no such thing as something called "divorce" being any different from "putting away" anywhere in Scripture.


They are NOT identical! They are NOT identical!

They are NOT identical!!!


Horses are animals. But those two words are NOT identical! And different WORDS are used because they describe different concepts!



Neither is there any mention in Scripture of NOT giving the separating wife a certificate of divorcement for some reason.

Not true. NOT TRUE! The historic truth is that men, because of the "hardness of their hearts" were doing EXACTLY that! Why? Because it was cheaper and easier to treacherously "put them away" in favor of a newer, younger wife than to provide for and cover both!!! (Ex. 21:10) Why was there a big argument between the schools of Gamaliel and Hillel, about "divorce for any reason"? Because some folks wouldn't let such treacherous men "divorce" their wives without a good excuse! And they WANTED that newer model, but couldn't afford to take her as a second wife! What to do, what to do? PUT HER AWAY - neglect her, abandon her, fail to provide for her. Run her off if necessary. Does that sound familiar? There is "nothing new under the sun" in that regard!

A "put away" woman, as opposed to one with a certificate, was in legal limbo - a literal hell of abandonment, where she had no covering, no support, no protection, and NO OPTION TO REMARRY, either! A woman who was "divorced for any reason" at least might have a chance to find another husband. But the "unlawfully put away" may literally be forced into prostitution, in order to survive - or to feed her abandoned children. No WONDER* her husband "causeth her" to commit adultery!

But until you are able to see that there is a difference, and to acknowledge the historic context in which Yeshua was TEACHING that difference, you will not see why this assertion is also horribly false:

This is simply an attempt to create a false distinction where none exists in the text, in order to unscripturally invent TWO forms of "divorce".

It was NEVER about "two forms of divorce", and I have resisted that false assertion. It is about Lawful, permitted divorce as opposed to unlawful, treacherous, "putting away".

May you be blessed,

Mark


-------------------------
* And I could add more, concerning the historic context -- once the essential bad assumptions are rejected. Why is the situation that Paul refers to in I Cor. 7:10-11 "not discussed anywhere else in Scripture"? Because it was extremely rare! Most women could not provide for their own economic support (which is why there is so much concern for widows and orphans, of course) in that world; "put away" women were the overwhelming concern, not those who chose to "put themselves away". Isaiah 4:1 makes a lot more sense in a time of "liberated", "independent" women than in a time when such women either starved or were forced to sell themselves.
 
Mark, can I respectfully request, in the interest of preserving our fellowship and our sanity :), that we refrain from using the English words like divorce, separated, putting away or whatever and just stick with the Hebrew or Greek text. It would make things SO much clearer if we'd stop trying to reverse-engineer our modern concepts back into the original text. I'm having to keep catching myself as well, but I think it will make everything much clearer in the long run.


Mark C said:
In the end, this entire argument comes down to trying to differentiate between "putting away" and "divorce" by making it seem like these are two distinct concepts, even though Biblically they are identical. There is no such thing as something called "divorce" being any different from "putting away" anywhere in Scripture.
They are NOT identical! They are NOT identical! They are NOT identical!!!
Horses are animals. But those two words are NOT identical! And different WORDS are used because they describe different concepts!
They ARE identical - in as much as there is no such thing as the modern concept of "divorce" anywhere in Scripture. There is only marital separation. Certainly there is a certificate of divorcement (cutting off), but there is no concept of a distinct action of divorce like we understand the concept as being different from separation. The only act of marital separation is "separation", usually "shalach" in Hebrew and "apoluo" in Greek. That's it. This entire dispute would evaporate if we would just stick to the actual Hebrew and Greek words and stop trying to force our modern definitions back into the original text.

In our modern culture, we have two different concepts of marital separation that mean very different things:

(1) Separated
(2) Divorced

Scripture has only one:

(1) Separated (usually "shalach" or "apoluo")

That's it. Whether you choose to translate the word as "divorced" or "separated" or "put away" or "cut off" or anything else you choose, there's only ONE concept for marital separation in Scripture. There aren't two distinct concepts of "being separated" anywhere in Scripture. There is only the one. You can call it anything you like, but there is "marital separation" and that's it.


Mark C said:
Neither is there any mention in Scripture of NOT giving the separating wife a certificate of divorcement for some reason.
Not true. NOT TRUE!
Okay, great. Show me a passage where Scripture shows a distinction between marital separation WITH a certificate and marital separation WITHOUT a certificate. You will find the same Hebrew or Greek words still simply mean "marital separation".


Mark C said:
It was NEVER about "two forms of divorce", and I have resisted that false assertion. It is about Lawful, permitted divorce as opposed to unlawful, treacherous, "putting away".
That's fine by me. We'll say two forms of MARITAL SEPARATION then.

If the Hebrew word for "divorce" is "shalach" and the Hebrew word for "putting away" is "shalach", then "divorce" is the same as "putting away".

If the Greek word for "divorce" is "apoluo" and the Greek word for "putting away" is "apoluo", then "divorce" is the same as "putting away".

You claim there are two forms of marital separation in Scripture? Okay, show us the actual Hebrew or Greek words that support your two concepts, or provide an example from Scripture which demonstrates this supposed distinction. Otherwise, let's both please stick to what the text actually says instead of what we want it to mean.

Always in His love,
David
 
David. I can hardly believe you are saying this. Putting away and putting away with a divorcement are the same thing? Surely not.

And I could add more, concerning the historic context -- once the essential bad assumptions are rejected. Why is the situation that Paul refers to in I Cor. 7:10-11 "not discussed anywhere else in Scripture"? Because it was extremely rare! Most women could not provide for their own economic support (which is why there is so much concern for widows and orphans, of course) in that world; "put away" women were the overwhelming concern, not those who chose to "put themselves away". Isaiah 4:1 makes a lot more sense in a time of "liberated", "independent" women than in a time when such women either starved or were forced to sell themselves.

Mark, this is so true. What you state about Isaiah 4:1. Such a statement would be shocking in Isaiah's day. It would be unheard of and practically unthinkable. This prophecy likely made Isaiah sound like a raving mad man for prophecying such audacious nonsense. The women in that model would be considered froward, even harlots for "taking hold" of a man, for having their own bread and their own apparel without need of anything else but for a man to take away their reproach. Some today still think they are the harlot churches but that is not what the scripture says. Why would an harlot be concerned about having her reproach taken away? Why would she even care? No, in this model the women were GOD FEARING and all seven recognized their need to SUBMIT to a man.


I'll be editing this as I go along. Sorry David. I believe you are mistaken to say that separation and divorce are the same thing — Unless you are saying that divorce does not include a bill of divorcement, in which case I suggest that all that is being disputed here is SEMANTICS.

Yes, I do believe it is a matter of semantics. How can it possibly be called "divorce" without a "divorcement"? That makes no sense to me at all. But I have a question. If the putting away and the divorcement are identical then how does the following scripture make any sense?

Matthew 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

You mean they are repeating themselves here? In other words the verse should read:

They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement , and to give a writing of divorcement?

No, I don't think that is what they're saying. I think what is written is correct. The putting away is INCLUSIVE of Divorcement but it is not divorcement. Therefore there can be no divorcement without the putting away but there can most certainly be a putting away without a writing of divorcement. That would mean that there was no closure. It would CAUSE the woman in question to commit adultery the moment she joined to another man. This is that CAUSE whereby Christ admonished his followers in Matthew 5:32: But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. The exception rule still stands as firm as it did when Christ declared it on the mount. There is only one cause for apoluo and that cause is also cited in Deuteronomy 24. I think that it is remarkable that the scripture in Matthew 5 is the only place in all of the New Testament where the word "divorced" is ever resorted to and I believe it should have been better translated as put away because that is what the word is translated as in every other case; but to be LAWFULLY PUT AWAY and to merely be put away without the writ are still two separate things. The divorcement was not granted to MOSES by GOD for nothing. It protected the woman from being stoned to death for adultery after she was sent out of the house for sex sin (whoredom) other than adultery. The writ was proof in the eyes of GOD and witnesses that the wife was indeed apoluo (LOOSED) from the law of her husband. It was indeed a merciful act in a day where adultery was answered with stoning.

GOD BLESS

Edward
 
Edward the Elder said:
David. I can hardly believe you are saying this. Putting away and putting away with a divorcement are the same thing? Surely not.
Well no, clearly there is a difference between LAWFUL putting away ("shalach/apoluo") and UNLAWFUL putting away ("shalach/apoluo"). I'm simply pointing out that putting away ("shalach/apoluo") and putting away ("shalach/apoluo") are the same thing. In other words, there aren't different Hebrew or Greek words to distinguish between a lawful versus an unlawful marital separation. There is only "shalach/apoluo".

Obviously, a LAWFUL "shalach/apoluo" still requires all the stated requirements from Deut 24:1-4, namely:

(1) A man takes a wife and marries her.
(2) She finds no favor in his eyes because he has found a matter of uncoveredness in her.
(3) He writes her a certificate of divorcement.
(4) He puts the certificate of divorcement in her hand.
(5) He puts her out of his house.

If all five criteria are present, then it is a lawful and valid "shalach/apoluo". Otherwise, it is unlawful and invalid and they remain married. Simply jumping straight to the "shalach/apoluo" step and skipping over some or all of the other required criteria makes for an invalid separation. Now it is true that in Matt. 5:32 and Matt. 19:9, Jesus specifically and solely insisted on valid justification for the separation (step 2) in order to avoid adultery, but as the marital separation process was already well known, He focused on the disputed element ("for any reason?") that was of paramount importance to Him - the treacherous "shalach/apoluo" without the prerequisite matter of prior whoring.

In His love,
David
 
David you know as well as I that apoluo and apostasion are not the same thing. Let's not play word games. There is no divorce without a divorcement. That was why it was vital for Jesus to distinguish the CAUSE and the EXCEPTION for apostasion and the "loosing" in the first place. To whisk such a statement away like a bothersome housefly is highly irreverant to say the least. These are the words of Christ and they still apply today. Fornication is the only lawful cause for divorcement. A lawfully divorced woman may go and be another man's wife. The man who marries a woman who is not lawfully divorced commits adultery because he has married another man's wife. She is still subject to the law of her husband. Moses certainly did not put words in GOD's mouth.

GOD bless

Edward
 
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