For some, 1 Corinthians 7:2 is very confusing. I have written this summary in hopes that it helps everyone understand the concept better. I would appreciate any suggestions:
1 Corinthians 7:2bc: "Let every man have his own (Grk., "heautou") wife and let every woman have her own (Grk., "idios") husband."
Question: What possible reason would Paul use two separate words to describe a marital relationship? Is he trying to confuse people, or is he trying to be precise? Paul, writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit was being precise! I would suggest that if Paul was promoting a "monogamy only position" he would have used " heautou " both times, but he didn't. He was setting up a contrast. You will see why in a moment.
You see, the word "heautou" (ἑαυτοῦ) is a reflexive pronoun of the third person. It refers back to himself, herself, itself". It signifies exclusive possession, like my "own" body, or my "own" soul, or my "own" mind. Paul uses this word the same way throughout 1 Corinthians. For example, in 1 Corinthians 3:18 Paul warns individuals to not deceive their "own" ("heautou") self. In 1 Corinthians 7:37 Paul is sharing that a father may keep his "own" ("heautou") virgin. This is in keeping with the Old Testament understanding of "ownership" of the daughter. It is carried over in a modern cultural sense when the parents are asked about the "giving" of the bride. Notice, that Paul did not use "idios". Why? Because the virgin daughter was the "exclusive possession" of the father. So, in 1 Corinthians 7:2b, translated with the full impact of this word, it can rightly be understood "Let every man have his wife as his own exclusive possession."
The word "idios" here, on the other hand, signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or "corporate ownership". Many times it is used as a corporate simple possessive, like in John 1:11 where John says "He came unto his "own" ("idios), and his "own" ("idios") received him not," or John 16:32, "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his "own" ("idios"), and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me," or John 19:17, "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his "own" ("idios") home". The idea is that there were others who were involved with the "ownership". They are "sharing" him! So, 1Corinthians 7:2c should be understood as "let every woman have her own shared husband."
Respectfully
1 Corinthians 7:2bc: "Let every man have his own (Grk., "heautou") wife and let every woman have her own (Grk., "idios") husband."
Question: What possible reason would Paul use two separate words to describe a marital relationship? Is he trying to confuse people, or is he trying to be precise? Paul, writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit was being precise! I would suggest that if Paul was promoting a "monogamy only position" he would have used " heautou " both times, but he didn't. He was setting up a contrast. You will see why in a moment.
You see, the word "heautou" (ἑαυτοῦ) is a reflexive pronoun of the third person. It refers back to himself, herself, itself". It signifies exclusive possession, like my "own" body, or my "own" soul, or my "own" mind. Paul uses this word the same way throughout 1 Corinthians. For example, in 1 Corinthians 3:18 Paul warns individuals to not deceive their "own" ("heautou") self. In 1 Corinthians 7:37 Paul is sharing that a father may keep his "own" ("heautou") virgin. This is in keeping with the Old Testament understanding of "ownership" of the daughter. It is carried over in a modern cultural sense when the parents are asked about the "giving" of the bride. Notice, that Paul did not use "idios". Why? Because the virgin daughter was the "exclusive possession" of the father. So, in 1 Corinthians 7:2b, translated with the full impact of this word, it can rightly be understood "Let every man have his wife as his own exclusive possession."
The word "idios" here, on the other hand, signifies actual or potential corporate possession, or "corporate ownership". Many times it is used as a corporate simple possessive, like in John 1:11 where John says "He came unto his "own" ("idios), and his "own" ("idios") received him not," or John 16:32, "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his "own" ("idios"), and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me," or John 19:17, "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his "own" ("idios") home". The idea is that there were others who were involved with the "ownership". They are "sharing" him! So, 1Corinthians 7:2c should be understood as "let every woman have her own shared husband."
Respectfully
