She has a living husband as long as he has a pulse.
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marriage, divorce, and remarriage
- Thread starter YoreyC
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If you are actually trying to tell women who HAVE a certificate of divorce that they are still married - shame on you. Worse, you'll have to answer for it, because He says otherwise.
I am saying that he has not yet died.
If she has a certificate of divorce, it does not matter. She’s free. Whether he is dead or alive.
Deuteronomy 24:1-2 KJV - When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.
2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
because he hath found some uncleanness in her:
sounds something like "except for porneia".
isn't it highly probable they arent because adultery = death for both parties? same for the "rite of jealousy." and also, that adultery was the reason jesus stipulated for NOT divorcing your wife (and only putting her away).
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No sir. That does not fit the context of Matt 5:32.
it does if we render it as "put away" instead of "divorce," which is a big part of what this thread is about.
Matthew 5:32 - Divorce
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, brings adultery upon her. And he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
biblehub.com
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some notes, inquisitions from John C. Carroll's book Divorce and Remarriage...
pp. 41, marriage in scripture is commonly called berith, or, "covenant," and all covenants are functionally contracts.
my elder: berith means "one-sided contract;" god alone walked through the animal corpse when contracting with Abraham in Gen. 12-15
pp. 42, marriage is contractual, and as a contract, it anticipates means whereby it may broken by either party, and assigning a penalty, or annulling the contract. Sexual fidelity (by the wife) is presumed, and doesn't need to be stated.
pp. 46, one of the situations perhaps being addressed in deut. 24:1-4 is a sent-away woman, remarried, but her husband claims she is adulterous, conspiring to put her to death.
It doesn't really matter. Jesus is placing a contrast between what He said that you have heard, in v 31, and what He is telling us in v 32.it does if we render it as "put away" instead of "divorce," which is a big part of what this thread is about.
Matthew 5:32 - Divorce
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, brings adultery upon her. And he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.biblehub.com
--
some notes, inquisitions from John C. Carroll's book Divorce and Remarriage...
pp. 41, marriage in scripture is commonly called berith, or, "covenant," and all covenants are functionally contracts.
my elder: berith means "one-sided contract;" god alone walked through the animal corpse when contracting with Abraham in Gen. 12-15
pp. 42, marriage is contractual, and as a contract, it anticipates means whereby it may broken by either party, and assigning a penalty, or annulling the contract. Sexual fidelity (by the wife) is presumed, and doesn't need to be stated.
pp. 46, one of the situations perhaps being addressed in deut. 24:1-4 is a sent-away woman, remarried, but her husband claims she is adulterous, conspiring to put her to death.
Is it a contrast, or is it a refinement?
Notice what he said:
31It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
What he didn’t say was: It hath been said, Whosoever shall divorce his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
It is a contrast. That is why He used the preposition "δὲ" in verse 32, which literally means "but" or "on the other hand". We can see that He does this throughout the entire Sermon on the Mount.
You have heard "Love your friends and hate your enemies"
But I say "Love your enemies"
You have heard "Do not murder"
But I say "If you are angry with your brother without cause, you will be liable to judgment"
You have heard "Do not swear falsely"
But I say "Don't swear at all"
EDIT: This is said in the context of Him fulfilling the Law. The fulfillment of the Law is to Love one another. Love does no harm to his neighbor.
You have heard "Love your friends and hate your enemies"
But I say "Love your enemies"
You have heard "Do not murder"
But I say "If you are angry with your brother without cause, you will be liable to judgment"
You have heard "Do not swear falsely"
But I say "Don't swear at all"
EDIT: This is said in the context of Him fulfilling the Law. The fulfillment of the Law is to Love one another. Love does no harm to his neighbor.
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32But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
The only contrast that I can find there is the contrast between putting away a wife with or without a certificate of divorce.
This verse follows what was said in v 31:
“It was also said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’"
verse 32 contrasts against this, saying that unless there is porneia, the man who does so, causes her to commit adultery, and it is apparent that the adultery occurs when another man comes along and marries this divorced woman.
You’ve misquoted vs 31. That throws everything off.
It matters a whole LOT. Else the entire point of Deuteronomy 24:1, REPEATED again in v 3, is ignored. And THAT was a big part of His point. (But not the only one.)
contrast works fine with your set of suppositions, which include that jesus taught against "merely" keeping "the letter" of the law, yet neglecting the "spirit." fair?
contradiction is not, unless you think that jesus advised against following god's law, before he even died. if the law says you are allowed to divorce if you follow this procedure, then to say someone is not allowed, is a contradiction.
right, that was always the law. surely you dont think god's law allows for harming one's neighbor.
what actually is your position on this, by the way, daniel? no cause, one cause?
the position i am attempting to represent and articulate is that there are many legitimate reasons for divorce. https://calvinismmyway.blogspot.com/2017/10/divorce-and-remarriage-what-are.html
my pastor's father and I (in addition to my fraternity of reformed friends) are examining John C Carroll's book on divorce and remarriage.
im not sure "refinment" really works either. the law of god is perfect; how do you improve perfect?
"reminder" might be better.
i think its that you CAN in fact send away a whoring wife, refusing to formally divorce her. THAT is the "exception clause" jesus was giving.
You keep saying this but Jesus did not say “divorce”. Therefore the entire premise of your argument is flawed from inception.
Jesus said “whoever sends away his wife”.
Sorry, refinement of their understanding.
Yah’s laws are indeed perfect, men’s understanding is the problem.