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Marriage in England

Also interesting. Idea of asking parent's permission for marriage comes not from church tradition, not from Bible, but from Roman law.
I highly doubt that claim.
 
I highly doubt that claim.
Why it would be?

West is Christianity plus Old Germanic Law.

Pater familias did have all powers over children's marriages. And when Roman law was rediscovered and studied, off course parent's influence was emphasied. And since late empire favours centralization (version first discovered) and people financing universities were kings and popes that they then have pushed Roman law.

This started happening from 11th century. There is no possibility of state without in West without Roman law. And what better way to form state and centralize more than to fo wholesale import of Roman law? Import rules, then use social pressure and existing laws to find Biblical justification.

This is same basis why Roman 13 is justified for state existience and why single verse is used for push for parental marriage decision of their children here. Interesting is that in thread of parental permission for children marriage nobody didn't mentioned what is theological justification why parental consent isn't needed. When doctrine persist for centuries it must be taken into account.
 
West is Christianity plus Old Germanic Law.

Pater familias did have all powers over children's marriages.
And what pre-dated them?
You have no proof that it started there.
 
Why it would be?

West is Christianity plus Old Germanic Law.

Pater familias did have all powers over children's marriages. And when Roman law was rediscovered and studied, off course parent's influence was emphasied. And since late empire favours centralization (version first discovered) and people financing universities were kings and popes that they then have pushed Roman law.

This started happening from 11th century. There is no possibility of state without in West without Roman law. And what better way to form state and centralize more than to fo wholesale import of Roman law? Import rules, then use social pressure and existing laws to find Biblical justification.

This is same basis why Roman 13 is justified for state existience and why single verse is used for push for parental marriage decision of their children here. Interesting is that in thread of parental permission for children marriage nobody didn't mentioned what is theological justification why parental consent isn't needed. When doctrine persist for centuries it must be taken into account.
"Parents permission" is not the same as "Father's permission".

The Bible is full of "Father's permission" for the marriage of daughter. Numbers chapter 30 is one place, but it's all through the Torah, historical narratives, etc.

Thanks for the link Memefan, it does sound very interesting. 👍
 
I have founded Twitter thread about history of marriage in England. It's interesting because England had society with historically uncommon mobility.


Also interesting. Idea of asking parent's permission for marriage comes not from church tradition, not from Bible, but from Roman law.
Fathers permission comes from the Bible. Not parents, but father.
 
And what pre-dated them?
You have no proof that it started there.
Pater familias is chief of roman family. And he could order children to divorce. Doubt that comes from Lord.

West in socielogical sense is nuclear families which can only exist if individuals can completely make decisions for themselves. And only Old Germanic law has mechanish which protect decision making of individuals.

Roman law has hierarchical structure of society which per se isn't incompatible with Christianity. Byzantine Empire is great example.

"Parents permission" is not the same as "Father's permission".

The Bible is full of "Father's permission" for the marriage of daughter. Numbers chapter 30 is one place, but it's all through the Torah, historical narratives, etc.
Fathers permission comes from the Bible. Not parents, but father.

Point of thread is from whence comes marriage mores in West. If you have read it you would notice that Bible isn't mentioned.

By the way, are Margery's (girl from thread) children bastards? She disobeyed her parents and got disowned. Her own parents treated her as practically dead.

This is what will really happen if society practices father's permission. Are you OK with that?
 
Fathers permission comes from the Bible. Not parents, but father.
This will sound like splitting hairs, but to understand what we see here you must know it comes not from the Bible but from God, the Creator of earth, the Author of authority, and the Ordainer of the precept that the delegation of His authority in earth rests on men (in this instance: husbands to take and fathers to give women in marriage). We may call the Bible the Word of God, but the Bible did not become flesh and dwell among us. The Bible is a witness to the Word of God, these immutable things created through Him, and, among other things, a written record of His chosen people. This is an important distinction to understand because it is why we see this practice (and other significant things) in the surviving records of unchosen people, such as these Germanic tribes, those who never saw or heard of the Bible but knew His ways from Noah, who was righteous, and carried those ways with them in their culture with varying degrees of accuracy.

In other words, every Bible in the world could be lost, and fathers would still have this authority, whether they knew it or not. Failure to act in this authority is why we see (to pick one drop out of the sea) the abomination of dating (*) and the destruction and suffering it causes, a punishment for our failure. It is inescapable because our command to rule is as real as any other command He gave us, having with it blessings for following and curses for not.

* edit to add: for consistency with splitting hairs, more accurately the fornication almost unilaterally associated with dating
 
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This is what will really happen if society practices father's permission. Are you OK with that?
No, @MemeFan. This is what happens when a man disregards the authority of a father and entices that man's daughter to do the same. This is what happens when a woman rebels against her father. I know you champion that. You should stop blaming the consequences on the command and start pinning it to the rebellion where it belongs.
 
Father’s permission is not at all that clear in the Bible. @MemeFan is right. The fetishization of a father’s consent appears to be more Roman. I’ll be happy to see the proof texts though if anyone has them.

To be clear, I think a father’s blessing is an incredibly valuable thing and I asked @windblown ’s father for her hand and was determined to get his permission. It was a wise choice and has great return in investment.

But had I taken her and been able to hold her from him then the marriage would have been just as valid. The husband outranks the father and it’s not even a close comparison.
 
Father’s permission is not at all that clear in the Bible. @MemeFan is right. The fetishization of a father’s consent appears to be more Roman. I’ll be happy to see the proof texts though if anyone has them.

To be clear, I think a father’s blessing is an incredibly valuable thing and I asked @windblown ’s father for her hand and was determined to get his permission. It was a wise choice and has great return in investment.

But had I taken her and been able to hold her from him then the marriage would have been just as valid. The husband outranks the father and it’s not even a close comparison.

I thought you were supposed to be Torah observant. Here I am, someone who doesn't hold to that general approach to Torah having to argue Torah application with you. 😉

Numbers 30:3-5 says that the father has the authority to nullify the vow of the daughter on the day that he hears of it. Marriage being a covenant falls under the category of vows.

This only applies to the daughter in her her father's house in her youth. It doesn't apply to widowed or divorced women (verse 9), or apparently an older unmarried daughter living independently.

It wouldn't have applied in the case of you and @windblown, though I agree it was considerate to request her father's blessing.

Deuteronomy 7:1-3 prohibited the Israelites from marrying the various Canaanite people. Among other things God said "You shall not give your daughter to their son". This assumes the father's authority to give or refuse to give his daughter in marriage.

The Israelite father did have the authority to tell his daughter "No, you may not marry Bob the Jebusite down the street".

Exodus 22:16-17 also makes it clear that the father has this authority over the unmarried daughter living in his house. He can refuse to give her even after a consensual one flesh sexual union has occurred.

The authority of a husband over his wife or wives is greater than that of a father over his unmarried daughters, but that father authority is still real.

Once the father gives the daughter (or fails to nullify on the day her hears of it) he no longer has the authority. The authority is permanently transferred.

King Saul had no authority (as father or king) to nullify the marriage of David and Michal after the fact.
 
I thought you were supposed to be Torah observant. Here I am, someone who doesn't hold to that general approach to Torah having to argue Torah application with you. 😉

Numbers 30:3-5 says that the father has the authority to nullify the vow of the daughter on the day that he hears of it. Marriage being a covenant falls under the category of vows.

This only applies to the daughter in her her father's house in her youth. It doesn't apply to widowed or divorced women (verse 9), or apparently an older unmarried daughter living independently.

It wouldn't have applied in the case of you and @windblown, though I agree it was considerate to request her father's blessing.

Deuteronomy 7:1-3 prohibited the Israelites from marrying the various Canaanite people. Among other things God said "You shall not give your daughter to their son". This assumes the father's authority to give or refuse to give his daughter in marriage.

The Israelite father did have the authority to tell his daughter "No, you may not marry Bob the Jebusite down the street".

Exodus 22:16-17 also makes it clear that the father has this authority over the unmarried daughter living in his house. He can refuse to give her even after a consensual one flesh sexual union has occurred.

The authority of a husband over his wife or wives is greater than that of a father over his unmarried daughters, but that father authority is still real.

Once the father gives the daughter (or fails to nullify on the day her hears of it) he no longer has the authority. The authority is permanently transferred.

King Saul had no authority (as father or king) to nullify the marriage of David and Michal after the fact.
I think this is well articulated and a correct understanding.
 
I thought you were supposed to be Torah observant. Here I am, someone who doesn't hold to that general approach to Torah having to argue Torah application with you. 😉

Numbers 30:3-5 says that the father has the authority to nullify the vow of the daughter on the day that he hears of it. Marriage being a covenant falls under the category of vows.

This only applies to the daughter in her her father's house in her youth. It doesn't apply to widowed or divorced women (verse 9), or apparently an older unmarried daughter living independently.

It wouldn't have applied in the case of you and @windblown, though I agree it was considerate to request her father's blessing.

Deuteronomy 7:1-3 prohibited the Israelites from marrying the various Canaanite people. Among other things God said "You shall not give your daughter to their son". This assumes the father's authority to give or refuse to give his daughter in marriage.

The Israelite father did have the authority to tell his daughter "No, you may not marry Bob the Jebusite down the street".

Exodus 22:16-17 also makes it clear that the father has this authority over the unmarried daughter living in his house. He can refuse to give her even after a consensual one flesh sexual union has occurred.

The authority of a husband over his wife or wives is greater than that of a father over his unmarried daughters, but that father authority is still real.

Once the father gives the daughter (or fails to nullify on the day her hears of it) he no longer has the authority. The authority is permanently transferred.

King Saul had no authority (as father or king) to nullify the marriage of David and Michal after the fact.
Better than I have ever explained it, and I have tried.
 
Numbers 30:3-5 says that the father has the authority to nullify the vow of the daughter on the day that he hears of it.
And where does that passage mention marriage?
Marriage being a covenant falls under the category of vows.
And where is marriage a covenant? Or involve a vow? I know we’ve gone around and around about this but the objection still stands. We never see a covenant or a vow connected to marriage anywhere in scripture, Malachi being a POSSIBLE but extremely questionable exception.
Exodus 22:16-17 also makes it clear that the father has this authority over the unmarried daughter living in his house. He can refuse to give her even after a consensual one flesh sexual union has occurred.
You have to reread this. First off, the verse has nothing to with the extent of a father’s authority or the legitimacy of the marriage. It is simply about bride price if the father is able to prevent the man taking possession. It has not more import than that.
 
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Deuteronomy 7:1-3 prohibited the Israelites from marrying the various Canaanite people. Among other things God said "You shall not give your daughter to their son". This assumes the father's authority to give or refuse to give his daughter in marriage.
And I thought you were an honest debater. Among those other things you forgot to mention was that this passage forbids taking their daughters and making covenants or even showing them favor. This passage does not comment at all on a father’s authority. It isn’t even about marriage. It is a general condemnation of several nations. Nothing in this passage applies as law outside of those 7 nations.

You see, I am a Torah keeper. I keep the Torah as it’s written, not as a convenient confirmation bias tool.
 
Once the father gives the daughter (or fails to nullify on the day her hears of it) he no longer has the authority. The authority is permanently transferred.

This is nice but even this still has to square with the world we live in. A father who goes to court to nullify or annul a lawful marriage that he is not a party to will be facing a very serious uphill climb even if his daughter is 16-17. And if the daughter is 18+ he'll be laughed out of court.

Then let's talk about the husband involved here.

A father who tries to cancel his daughter's marriage just might have to deal with a patriarchal and dominant man who doesn't agree with him. Such a husband might not be interested in entertaining a fascinating theological discussion of why his wife's father is trying to bust up his new marriage.

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A father who tries to cancel his daughter's marriage just might have to deal with a patriarchal and dominant man who doesn't agree with him. Such a husband might not be interested in entertaining a fascinating theological discussion of why his wife's father is trying to bust up his new marriage.
What woman would even want to marry a man who could be dominated by her father?

Anyone who thinks this is a good idea needs to look into what happened to Charlemagne’s daughters or the epidemic of unmarried young people in quiverfull communities. Forbidding to marry is heavily discouraged.

Obviously a father should exercise discretion and apply guidance and sometimes even pressure, but acting like a father can legitimize or deligitimize a one flesh Union is just outside all bounds of scripture.
 
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