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Support Matthew 19:9 is pro polygyny!?!?

Sorry, Zec. I'm out of ideas. I fail to understand how it is you can't see that divorce and remarriage doesn't move the needle on the number of wives, and therefore I fail to find a way to help you see. The fact that the teaching is given without respect to the number of wives is no more supportive of polygyny than it is detractive. It is like the dozens of other laws that govern marriage while lacking bearing on the quantity of marriages. Only a handful of laws give conditions that are predicated on or elude to the existence of multiple marriages at the same time, and this is not one of them. If anything, it smacks of serial monogamy.

Someone else can carry the torch. I'm out.
And if you can’t see why rules around taking another wife would effect polygyny then I can’t help you. It’s literally about taking another wife. Why wouldn’t it apply?

I already said it wasn’t the best argument for someone who understands the issue but I think it could be very effective with skeptics.
 
Even if you were technically correct @The Revolting Man, the argument is so weak that it is counterproductive to use. It comes across as you grasping for weak technicalities to support your case, and the person you are trying to persuade will see your position as weak and unpersuasive. So
It is not grasping at weak technicalities. It is answering a question from a skeptic. Someone who wants to turn Matthew 19:9 to discredit polygyny has to deal with the fact, FACT, that a married man could take another wife and not be in violation of the verse. How is that not a significant argument in that situation?

I’m actually confounded that neither you or @NVIII can see that. Is it a deliberate hold over from previous interactions? Just obstinance? This is a big deal.
 
Someone who wants to turn Matthew 19:9 to discredit polygyny has to deal with the fact, FACT, that a married man could take another wife and not be in violation of the verse. How is that not a significant argument in that situation?
Yes, that is a very important point to make, I agree with you on that.

The problem is that you went beyond that in your initial post, and ended up asserting more than the verse itself states.
The more serious problem that you have is that verse very explicitly limits the inability to take a second wife to men who have improperly divorced a previous wife.
No, it does not. It says that men who have improperly divorced a previous wife cannot take a second. It gives one situation in which a man is forbidden from remarrying, but does not say that this is the only reason a man cannot take another - there might conceivably be other situations in which a man is forbidden to take another wife which are not the topic of discussion.

If I tell my child "Don't run with knives in the house", does that imply that it is always permissible to run with knives anywhere else? Or that it's always permissible to run in the house, just not if they are carrying a knife? Have I explicitly limited this and defined the only situation where running is impermissible? Or was I just addressing one situation?

You have a very valid point. You're just taking it too far, introducing a logical flaw, and giving the other person an opening to use against you.

I'm not saying your conclusions are wrong, I'm just saying the argument is poor and as a result unpersuasive.

If you instead said "this does not forbid polygamy, in fact it is inclusive of polygamy and applies to polygamists just as much as monogamists", you'd be on sounder footing and would not be going beyond what the verse itself states.
 
Correct. Incorrect. It implies that polygyny is permitted, but it's not a pro-polygyny verse (nor is it an anti-polygyny verse). Just because x is mentioned does not necessarily imply either promotion or condemnation.

Context. Context. Context

It is the context of the pharisees question that actually proves this is a pro polygyny declaration and explanation by jesus/YAHushuWaH
 
If I tell my child "Don't run with knives in the house", does that imply that it is always permissible to run with knives anywhere else? Or that it's always permissible to run in the house, just not if they are carrying a knife? Have I explicitly limited this and defined the only situation where running is impermissible? Or was I just addressing one situation?
If you told them that you had given them the entirety of your law then yes.
improperly divorced a previous wife cannot take a second.
That’s what I said…..
 
“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.”
It's a really crappy translation.

Been there, done that -- lots of reasons:

- the "exception clause" as claimed, is inconsistent with BOTH His Word, and what He says elsewhere, and even DEMONSTRATES Himself. (Jeremiah 3, Ezekiel 23). If she's an adulteress, He can (and DID) "put her away," and she doesn't even deserve a get. (that's a big part of the story, done at length elsehwere.) Israel committed adultery/idolatry, so did Judah; one got a get, the other didn't. If you don't understand that, don't try to misread a bad translation here.

- It's "he CAUSETH HER" to commit adultery, and the guy who sent a woman out who did NOT already commit adultery, without a get, CAUSES HER (duh!) to commit adutery. And HE IS HELD RESPONSIBLE. (Some English renderings get it right, others don't. But only ONE of them is consistent with His Instruction!)

If you're going to try to argue polygyny with people who don't understand His Word as Written, and can't see inconsistencies - at least get a good translation.

And be able to explain WHY.
 
It's a really crappy translation.

Been there, done that -- lots of reasons:

- the "exception clause" as claimed, is inconsistent with BOTH His Word, and what He says elsewhere, and even DEMONSTRATES Himself. (Jeremiah 3, Ezekiel 23). If she's an adulteress, He can (and DID) "put her away," and she doesn't even deserve a get. (that's a big part of the story, done at length elsehwere.) Israel committed adultery/idolatry, so did Judah; one got a get, the other didn't. If you don't understand that, don't try to misread a bad translation here.

- It's "he CAUSETH HER" to commit adultery, and the guy who sent a woman out who did NOT already commit adultery, without a get, CAUSES HER (duh!) to commit adutery. And HE IS HELD RESPONSIBLE. (Some English renderings get it right, others don't. But only ONE of them is consistent with His Instruction!)

If you're going to try to argue polygyny with people who don't understand His Word as Written, and can't see inconsistencies - at least get a good translation.

And be able to explain WHY.
Well I explained why. Ad nauseum.
 
It's a really crappy translation.

Been there, done that -- lots of reasons:

- the "exception clause" as claimed, is inconsistent with BOTH His Word, and what He says elsewhere, and even DEMONSTRATES Himself. (Jeremiah 3, Ezekiel 23). If she's an adulteress, He can (and DID) "put her away," and she doesn't even deserve a get. (that's a big part of the story, done at length elsehwere.) Israel committed adultery/idolatry, so did Judah; one got a get, the other didn't. If you don't understand that, don't try to misread a bad translation here.

- It's "he CAUSETH HER" to commit adultery, and the guy who sent a woman out who did NOT already commit adultery, without a get, CAUSES HER (duh!) to commit adutery. And HE IS HELD RESPONSIBLE. (Some English renderings get it right, others don't. But only ONE of them is consistent with His Instruction!)

If you're going to try to argue polygyny with people who don't understand His Word as Written, and can't see inconsistencies - at least get a good translation.

And be able to explain WHY.
Finally. I've been metaphorically biting my tongue through all this. The cause of the clause is in fact the exception. A man can indeed put away a wife unlawfully, without a bill of divorcement, causing her to commit adultery (be-CAUSE she is still his wife), and they twain still being one flesh are both guilty of the act; howbeit the cause of the clause is not adultery but fornication, and there is a difference between the two terms, fornication being far more general. Under the law the adulterer and the adulteress were required to be stoned to death. Clearly then, the Messiah, born under the law, was not referring to adultery as being the lawful cause, or exception. Putting away can be done without divorcement. I don't say that it is advisable, but it can be done. There is but one cause for lawful divorcement and I believe this to be the exception mentioned in the New Testament. This is also supported in the Old Testament.
 
Yes, that is a very important point to make, I agree with you on that.

The problem is that you went beyond that in your initial post, and ended up asserting more than the verse itself states.

No, it does not. It says that men who have improperly divorced a previous wife cannot take a second. It gives one situation in which a man is forbidden from remarrying, but does not say that this is the only reason a man cannot take another - there might conceivably be other situations in which a man is forbidden to take another wife which are not the topic of discussion.

If I tell my child "Don't run with knives in the house", does that imply that it is always permissible to run with knives anywhere else? Or that it's always permissible to run in the house, just not if they are carrying a knife? Have I explicitly limited this and defined the only situation where running is impermissible? Or was I just addressing one situation?

You have a very valid point. You're just taking it too far, introducing a logical flaw, and giving the other person an opening to use against you.

I'm not saying your conclusions are wrong, I'm just saying the argument is poor and as a result unpersuasive.

If you instead said "this does not forbid polygamy, in fact it is inclusive of polygamy and applies to polygamists just as much as monogamists", you'd be on sounder footing and would not be going beyond what the verse itself states.
Sorry, Samuel, but I have to disagree with you here. (a) By failing to determine the timing of the improper divorce, (b) by thus introducing marrying another without asserting that all Yeshua is talking about is a subsequent wife [in fact, indicating contemporaneity with the use of 'and'], and (c) by failing to condemn polygyny on Yeshua's part, it is ipso facto at the very least promotion by implication. So @The Revolting Man has made his case.

The argument is not poor, nor is it something to be avoided out of fear that it will scare away the spineless who aren't even close to being prone to persuasion, anyway. Rejecting an action because it won't have universal efficacy is foolish. In fact, it's not his argument that's unpersuasive but the hypothetical pool of persuadables, because any significant amount of energy directed toward persuading the unpersuadables is a waste of time and energy.
 
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The argument is not poor, nor is it something to be avoided out of fear that it will scare away the spineless who aren't even close to being prone to persuasion, anyway.
I suggested that arguing from a crappy translation is counterproductive, because the Truth is lost in the smoke. And the 'ignorant and proud of it,' will inevitably focus on the triviality and distraction. (Ad nauseum, even.)

But I did particularly enjoy this:

Rejecting an action because it won't have universal efficacy is foolish. In fact, it's not his argument that's unpersuasive but the hypothetical pool of persuadables, because any significant amount of energy directed toward persuading the unpersuasive [sic] is a waste of time and energy.
I like the way Yahushua put it, too: There comes a time when the appropriate action is "wipe the dust off your feet," and move on...


PS> Maybe the "unpersuadable" resonates a bit better with me. But I guess many of 'em are unpersuasive, too.
 
PS> Maybe the "unpersuadable" resonates a bit better with me. But I guess many of 'em are unpersuasive, too.
Good catch, Mark. You read my mind! I made the correction.
 
OK, I just encountered this Mark 10:11, same variant, different verse, and I shot it down by pointing out that in the Tyndale version, it says "breaks wedlock with her", which entirely undermines the premise that if he commits adultery by marrying another, then polygyny must also be adultery. This YouTube commenter (cbtam "Truth Always Matters" - what a joke! This guys has been trolling me lately...) responded by saying he did not respect the Tyndale translation, because he only uses translations that use the best manuscripts. I knew he was blowing smoke, so I went to the Erasmus text that Tyndale used, and sure enough, on page 217 line 2 Mark 10:11 uses the exact same Greek word that is found in the best manuscripts that we have! The Latin translation is the one that uses the Latin word for "adultery", and that is the translation all the other versions are based on! It is so funny, he did not want to impugn the integrity or scholarship of Tyndale, so he implied that Tyndale used an inferior manuscript, when the manuscript that Tyndale used, is no different for that particular verse than any other manuscript out there!
 
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"Whoever takes a bite from an apple and returns it to the grocer, unless that apple has a worm in it, and takes another apple commits fraud." Clearly this implies the one who returned the apple might lawfully have more apples at home since it is not mentioned nor would it be because it is not relevant at all to the discussion at hand, which is about returning apples.
 
"Whoever takes a bite from an apple and returns it to the grocer, unless that apple has a worm in it, and takes another apple commits fraud." Clearly this implies the one who returned the apple might lawfully have more apples at home since it is not mentioned nor would it be because it is not relevant at all to the discussion at hand, which is about returning apples.
Ooo! Good analogy, but I am always cautious of using analogies. It works good when you are trying to help someone who wants to understand what you are trying to say, but not so much in debate against someone who doesn't. The problem with analogies in debate, is we can always find an ananlogy to support any position that we want to take, but analogies don't always mirror reality.

EDIT: Here is a bit of a primer - https://study.com/learn/lesson/false-analogy-fallacy-weak-examples.html#:~:text=The false analogy fallacy is,oranges alludes to this fallacy.
Whatever you do in the debate sphere, always avoid logical fallacies, because if you get called out on it, your effort has been wasted.
 
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responded by saying he did not respect
Correction: it is a she. I have seen it happen all the time on YouTube, and I wish it was more clear the gender of the people whom we interact with.
 
Correction: it is a she. I have seen it happen all the time on YouTube, and I wish it was more clear the gender of the people whom we interact with.
Sometimes keeping track of the pronoun switching is akin to watching a tennis match.
 
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