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Meat One Flesh: Restoring God's words around "marriage"

The Revolting Man

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I apologize for starting yet one more new thread around the topic of one flesh, however previous threads have taken a verse-by-verse approach and I want to take a more holistic approach this time by looking at all the verses that contain the phrase one flesh at once.

Some of what I'm going to say won't be surprising to some of you and some will. Let's start with the most surprising part, I may be in the throes of an evolution around an aspect of this issue. There's something in 1 Corinthians 6:16 we've all missed and that colors my bumper sticker statement that "sex=marriage." We'll talk about that later. Incidentally, this is not the slam dunk I teased in a different thread. That particular slam dunk will be in this post, but because of the new insights into 1 Corinthians 6:16 may force me to take on a more nuanced position, I can't in good faith currently declare the debate over.

What will not surprise those of you who you have followed this debate is that I still maintain that the phrase "one flesh" is how the Bible describes the relationship we've mislabeled (and then misdefined) as "marriage". By looking at every instance of the use of the phrase "one flesh" in the Bible I believe this claim becomes very difficult for the honest examiner to deny.

An examination of every verse that contains the phrase "one flesh" does not take very long. There are only 6. Here is the comprehensive list: Genesis 2:24, Matthew 19:5-6 with two occurrences, Mark 10:8 which has two occurrences in the single verse, the controversial 1 Corinthians 6:16 which is unique in all of scripture in its use of the phrase, and one we've never discussed before, the aforementioned slam dunk, Ephesians 5:31, itself controversial throughout all of Christendom. Let's do a quick overview of all five passages.

Genesis 2:24 - This is where it all begins. God has just brought Eve to Adam for the first time and after relating the details of the meeting the narrator of the story leaves the narrative to give us commentary on the significance of the passage, the first time this happens in scripture as far as I can tell. The verse reads, "Therefore shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." This is the original use of the phrase and the establishment of the relationship between a man and a woman that we've incorrectly labeled "marriage". Every other use of the phrase "one flesh" is a direct quote of this foundational passage, with one possible exception. Almost everything we know about the universal concept of a "marriage" is contained in this verse. Everything else we're given is either a derivative of this verse or a limited subset of it. Fascinatingly this is the only place in the Old Testament that the phrase occurs.

Matthew 19:5-6 - In this passage the Pharisees have attempted to test Jesus by asking Him a difficult passage involving putting away a woman. Jesus prefaces His answer by quoting Genesis 2:24, repeating the last part of the verse, "Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh," reinforcing the importance of that segment of the verse. He then adds a powerful conclusion, "What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder." These two verses make it impossible for me to not recognize the phrase "one flesh" as the name God uses for what we describe as "marriage". We'll go in depth on this momentarily.

Mark 10:8 - In this passage the Pharisees are again testing Jesus around the topic of divorce and again, starting in verse 7, He quotes Genesis 2:24 and again He repeats the final line of the verse for added emphasis; "so they are no more twain, but one flesh." I am unsure if this is the same instance that was relayed to us in Matthew 19:5-6 or a different instance. I've heard it taught both ways. I believe the consensus on this forum is that these are separate events; one dealing with lawful divorce and one dealing with unlawful putting away. But again, I am unclear on that aspect of the two accounts.

1 Corinthians 6:16 - Alright, this is where all of the controversy starts. A brief overview of this verse is very difficult to do. In typical Pauline fashion it's not even clear exactly where the thought starts. It may be in verse 12, verse 13 touches on fornication but by verse 15 Paul has gotten to this point about making the members of Christ the members of a harlot. He further complicates the matter by veering from the template we've seen so far. He does not quote the entirety of Genesis 2:24 but only the phrase, "for two, saith he, shall be one flesh." The phrase is not repeated a second time for emphasis as it was by Christ, also the context of the verse does not make it clear that we are dealing with a man and woman who exist in the state of "marriage," as the previous three passages do. However, the next teaching Paul launches in to after he wraps up this one at the end of the chapter are an important series of teachings on sex inside the relationship we call "marriage." Chapter 7 contains a number of important teachings around sex, marriage and divorce that extend all of the way through to verse 17. The verses in chapter 6 starting somewhere around verse 12 seem to be artificially separated from the verse around "marriage" in chapter 7. That being said, the radically different formulation of 1 Corinthians 6:16 from the other passages quoting Genesis 2:24 requires study and explanation.

Ephesian 5:31 - The aforementioned slam dunk which I still think is quite difficult to disprove. Ephesians 5 is the New Testament passage, and possibly of the whole of scripture, that tells us how followers of Jesus are to conduct their "marriages". This is the famous submission passage where husbands are commanded to love their wives with the love of Christ and wives are commanded to submit to their husbands in all things as the church does to Christ. If you want to start a fight this is the passage to do it with. The "one flesh" quote is contained in verse 31 and here Paul returns to quoting the entirety of Genesis 2:24, although he does not repeat the last sentence for emphasis as Christ does in Matthew and Mark.
What should not be missed however is verse 30 which is repeating themes for 1 Corinthians 6:16 that link the "one flesh" relationship between a man and a woman to the concept of Christians being members of the body of Christ, tying 1 Corinthians 6:16 closer to the concept of "marriage" without negating the need to study more in depth the truncated quote of Genesis 2:24 found therein.

There you have it, all of the instances of the use of the phrase "one flesh" in the Bible. The vast majority of them are found in quotes of Genesis 2:24 or in that verse itself. It's always found in proximity to "marriage" (there is one verse I have left out of this discussion that uses the words "one" and "flesh" sequentially but only to denote the number of fleshes involved in the idea, not as a unique state of two fleshes being one).

So why does any of this mean that we should eschew the word "marriage" for the phrase "one flesh"? It's important at this stage to remind everyone what my thesis is, I am proposing that when we speak about the relationship that exists between a man and woman, that can make them liable to the charger of adultery, that we should refer to that relationship as "one flesh" and not "marriage". In fact, from now on I will only be using the phrase one flesh, and will be deleting the air quotes, when I write about the subject here or when I'm in conversation with those I won't have to make a long winded explanation to.

My reasoning is simple and should be obvious at this point. At the end of Genesis 2:24 the man and woman are described as persisting in a state called one flesh. It says "they shall be one flesh." It is a statement that designates the category of their relationship going forward. They are not "married" or "covenanted," they shall be one flesh. One flesh is what they're going to be.

This is of course undeniably reinforced in Matthew and Mark. When Christ is asked about putting away a woman, He quotes the Genesis verse and expounds on it by repeating and emphasizing that "they are no more twain, but one flesh." The opposite of a man and woman being separate is being one flesh. He goes on immediately to say that "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." God has fused the two into one flesh and man shouldn't separate that. Because they are one flesh and because God Himself is somehow a part of forming that one flesh, divorce should not happen. Again, the one flesh is integral to the teaching on divorce, in fact the divorce is the undoing of one flesh. There is no divorce outside of one flesh.

That brings us to 1 Corinthians 6:16, a contentious verse that I'm going to skip over for now for reasons that I've laid out already. I suspect that the connections between 1 Corinthians 6 and Ephesians 5 vis a vis the body of Christ and the allegory of one flesh are going to take a lot of time and study to unravel. I am not confident that I am capable of accomplishing it. But while there are seemingly important elements left out of the 1 Corinthians 6 one flesh, it is contained within broader and important teachings about how to conduct the one flesh relationship. It is not at all clear that these subtractions change the nature of the one flesh relationship described in 1 Corinthians 6. In fact it could simply be that their absence is why that type of one flesh relationship shouldn't be formed, since it could of necessity lead to adultery through an unlawful putting away.

And if all that wasn't enough, we come to Ephesians 5:31. Here we get the most powerful and encompassing description of the responsibilities and duties of a husband and a wife and the mystical properties that relationship shares with the one that exists between Christ and the church. And once again we're told that a man who is to love a woman with the love of Christ, and a woman who is to submit to that man as the church does to Christ, shall be one flesh. They shall be one flesh. Just as the church becomes the body of Christ, the man and the woman become one flesh. And they shall be one flesh. They shall not be married, they shall not be covenanted. They shall be one flesh.

I have enlisted the scholarly help of our learned member @ABlessedMan to help me with the links between 1 Corinthians 6 and Ephesians 5 and whatever the significance is of the lack of "leave and cleave" in 1 Corinthians 6:16. For the moment I am not making the claim that sex ="marriage." I am asserting confidently that when Christ describes my relationship to @windblown to the angels, He refers to us as being one flesh.

Prove me wrong.
 
I like the development of your thinking here @The Revolting Man, and I agree that the relationship God cares about is the one flesh relationship.
For the moment I am not making the claim that sex ="marriage." I am asserting confidently that when Christ describes my relationship to @windblown to the angels, He refers to us as being one flesh.
In previous threads we have been debating whether "sex = marriage", and I am pleased you have specifically stated that is not the argument here, because that statement is where all the complexity begins. The concept of "marriage" rightly or wrongly generally includes the various contractual agreements that occur around the one flesh relationship, and so this discussion sinks into an argument over whether those contractual agreements are part of the "marriage" or not. And this is all semantics, and circular reasoning. Throw out the word "marriage" instead of trying to define it, and suddenly everything becomes clear.

God forms one flesh relationships. The relationship I have with my wife is a one flesh relationship.

In addition, there are contractual and other matters wrapped around that relationship. Betrothals, vows, marriage licences, dowries, unwritten agreements and so forth. These do exist, and are important - the contractual agreement of betrothal is so serious that breach of it is called "adultery".

If we try to define "marriage", then we have to argue about whether these contracts are part of it or not - and that is where the debate occurs. But if we just keep it all separate, and simply uphold both the need to both honour one flesh relationships AND the need to honour the vows / contracts / promises that we make, there really is no debate any more, because both of those points are self-evident.
And if all that wasn't enough, we come to Ephesians 5:31. Here we get the most powerful and encompassing description of the responsibilities and duties of a husband and a wife and the mystical properties that relationship shares with the one that exists between Christ and the church. And once again we're told that a man who is to love a woman with the love of Christ, and a woman who is to submit to that man as the church does to Christ, shall be one flesh. They shall be one flesh. Just as the church becomes the body of Christ, the man and the woman become one flesh. And they shall be one flesh. They shall not be married, they shall not be covenanted. They shall be one flesh.
Absolutely agree.
 
Throw out the word "marriage" instead of trying to define it, and suddenly everything becomes clear.
This is one of the things I’ve been trying to convey through my oft repeated rejection of the word “marriage”. It assumes much in the mind of the reader and seems to derail the discussion into a few people all talking past each other.

On a consulting tour, can’t really get into things. But I’m following when I have time. I appreciate your efforts and respectful discourse @The Revolting Man

Looking forward to seeing more on this topic.
 
Really nice work, TRM. I was going to give a verse that might support your thesis and looked in the NIV. . .

Genesis 24:67 Isaac brought her into the tent of his mother Sarah, and he married Rebekah. So she became his wife, and he loved her; and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death. (Gen 24:67 NIV)

(sigh)

וַיְבִאֶ֣הָ יִצְחָ֗ק הָאֹ֙הֱלָה֙ שָׂרָ֣ה אִמּ֔וֹ וַיִּקַּ֧ח אֶת־רִבְקָ֛ה וַתְּהִי־ל֥וֹ לְאִשָּׁ֖ה וַיֶּאֱהָבֶ֑הָ וַיִּנָּחֵ֥ם יִצְחָ֖ק אַחֲרֵ֥י אִמּֽוֹ׃ פ

So . . In Hebrew: Isaac brought her to the tent of Sarah his mother, and he took Rebekah and she was to him for a wife, and Isaac loved her and he was consoled after his mother.

It would seem at first glance to support your assertion. . .
 
Really nice work, TRM. I was going to give a verse that might support your thesis and looked in the NIV. . .

Genesis 24:67 Isaac brought her into the tent of his mother Sarah, and he married Rebekah. So she became his wife, and he loved her; and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death. (Gen 24:67 NIV)

(sigh)

וַיְבִאֶ֣הָ יִצְחָ֗ק הָאֹ֙הֱלָה֙ שָׂרָ֣ה אִמּ֔וֹ וַיִּקַּ֧ח אֶת־רִבְקָ֛ה וַתְּהִי־ל֥וֹ לְאִשָּׁ֖ה וַיֶּאֱהָבֶ֑הָ וַיִּנָּחֵ֥ם יִצְחָ֖ק אַחֲרֵ֥י אִמּֽוֹ׃ פ

So . . In Hebrew: Isaac brought her to the tent of Sarah his mother, and he took Rebekah and she was to him for a wife, and Isaac loved her and he was consoled after his mother.

It would seem at first glance to support your assertion. . .
What I’m really interested in at the moment is the talk about the body of Christ in 1 Corinthians 6 and Ephesians 5. In. I’m both chapters it’s prominently juxtaposed near the one flesh relationship.
 
the lack of "leave and cleave" in 1 Corinthians 6:16

Could Paul be referencing this when he says "the one who joins himself to a prostitute"? The word "join" there, according to the interlinear, has as its definitions "to glue", "cement", "fasten together", and "cleave to". It's the same word used in Matthew 19:5 (LSB) for "JOINED", according to BLB. I don't know Greek at all, but the word looks like it could be related to the one used in Ephesians 5:31, which is itself the same word as used in Mark 10:7.

Now, I'm uncertain whether Paul would be referring to individual instances or instead to permanent joinings similar to that of Hosea, but it seems more likely to me that it is referring to individual instances.

So why does any of this mean that we should eschew the word "marriage" for the phrase "one flesh"? It's important at this stage to remind everyone what my thesis is, I am proposing that when we speak about the relationship that exists between a man and woman, that can make them liable to the charger of adultery, that we should refer to that relationship as "one flesh" and not "marriage". In fact, from now on I will only be using the phrase one flesh, and will be deleting the air quotes, when I write about the subject here or when I'm in conversation with those I won't have to make a long winded explanation to.

I like this idea, but what do you do then with 1 Corinthians 6:16? If a man becomes one flesh with a prostitute, is he then in this state of "marriage"? What if two brothers in Christ become one flesh with the same prostitute? Are both in that same state of "marriage"?
 
I'd like to propose an interpretation that I have personally (and tentatively) arrived at while following along in these discussions, and make it available for critique. I don't want to derail this thread, but it seems relevant and I have no idea to which of the several related threads this would better belong. Please feel free to move this!

My proposition is this: there are three aspects involved, and becoming one flesh is a vow.

The three aspects would be:
  • "Cleaving"/"joining"
  • One flesh
  • "Marriage"
The way these work together seem to be:
  1. "Cleaving"/"joining", at least the first time, establishes one-fleshedness with that woman
  2. One-fleshedness (or perhaps "cleaving"/"joining") is akin to a vow for "marriage"
  3. When a vow for "marriage" conflicts with an existing vow, this is adultery
  4. Abandoning a vow for "marriage" results in sin of some type, perhaps fornication or adultery (I'm less certain about the specifics here)
Now for the explanation:

#1 - "Cleaving"/"joining" establishes one-fleshedness

This seems the most straightforward to me. Genesis 2:24, coupled with 1 Corinthians 6:16, seems to suggest this is true. If joining with a prostitute, who has presumably joined with others, still results in becoming one flesh, then it may be safe to say that cleaving always results in becoming one flesh.

#2 - One-fleshedness (or perhaps "cleaving") is akin to a vow


This is less straightforward. The best proof-text I can think of would be Exodus 22:16-17 coupled with Numbers 30:5:

Exodus 22:16-17 (LSB):

16 “If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged and lies with her, he must pay a dowry for her to be his wife. 17 If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he shall pay money equal to the dowry for virgins.

Numbers 30:5 (LSB):

5 But if her father should forbid her on the day he hears of it, none of her vows or her obligations by which she has bound herself shall stand; and Yahweh will pardon her because her father had forbidden her.

It seems to me that these two things are related. Under this proposed view, a man who lies with a woman has cleaved with her, and has become one flesh with her (based on #1), and (here's the assumption) has implicitly vowed to stay with her (in "marriage") simply by taking part in the act. This would then place her under the man's authority, and her vows (which would include the implicit vow assumed to be made as a part of cleaving) would be subject to the man's (husband's) authority as well. However, Exodus 22:16-17 is in place to ensure that this final vow made while under the father's authority is still subject to his decision and cannot be bypassed by trying to shift authorities. The father then has the right to forbid his daughter this vow, and refuse to give her to the man.

I would then say that the instruction that states that a widow or a divorced woman must keep her vows would extend to this as well, meaning that a woman under neither father nor husband is bound to the vow that is created by becoming one flesh.

Yes, this draws a connection between two concepts that the Bible does not draw itself. However, I'd like to point to Jesus' own art skills when He drew the connection between commandments 7 (no adultery) and 10 (no coveting) of the ten commandments in Matthew 5:27. In a similar way, I would suggest that there may be many connections between concepts that have not been explicitly described for one reason or another, and that this may be one of them.

#3 - Vows that conflict with existing vows is called adultery


This is fairly straightforward if #2 is accepted. If a company makes an exclusive contract, and then makes another, conflicting exclusive contract, then this is, as described, a conflict. It could be said that it is a violation of the initial contract, and the new contract is of no effect. Whether the other party in the first contract is willing to continue the violated deal is up to individual cases (I don't know law, so I'm probably butchering this).

Similarly, if a woman is one flesh with man "A", and becomes one flesh with man "B" (see #1), this is proposed to be equivalent to saying: If a woman is vowed to man "A", and vows to man "B". As we see in scripture, this is adultery and cause for either divorce or death, depending on the Testament. If this is indeed equivalent, it is then exactly equivalent to the case of the woman betrothed to a man, since that involves a vow. These would then be two different types of vows, but vows nonetheless.

#4 - Abandoning vows is sin


This is a little more nebulous for me, but it seems straightforward enough.

As seen in the instruction on vows in Numbers 5, a man must keep his vow. Unlike a woman under a father or husband, he has no authority over him which can nullify his vows. This is held up in Exodus 22:16-17 where the man who lies with an un-engaged woman must keep her as his wife.

If #2 is accepted, then a man who lies with a woman who is not under an existing vow and then does not keep her as his wife (assuming the father does not object) has made a vow and then abandoned it, thereby violating it. I believe this is referred to as fornication or whore-mongering, and in some cases may be described as adultery. Regardless, the underlying link is the same: the abandonment/violation of a vow.

However, the woman at the well

The woman at the well is described as having had multiple husbands, but the one she has now is not her husband. I still don't know how to reconcile this with my proposition, and I'm surprised other people aren't discussing it more, especially after someone else brought it up... somewhere.

As far as I can tell, there are a few different interpretations which might squeeze this jigsaw puzzle piece in, but even if it fits I'm not so certain the colours match.

Maybe:
  • "the one you have now" isn't necessarily male, so... she has a female partner? Highly doubtful, but might as well mention it. Also, the underlying Greek might make this interpretation impossible, but I don't trust my understanding enough to check, so I'll just reject this instead.
  • she could have been in a situation comparable to how King David had a young woman with whom he never had sex (and thus with whom he never became one flesh). Not really convincing to me.
  • Jesus may have been referring to things as she would have understood them. In other words, her culture would not call this man her husband. Not very convincing either, and I don't really like arguments from culture.
Unless this scenario can be reconciled somehow, a big question would remain: why was the one she had not considered her husband?

Conclusion


The state of being "one flesh" is obtained by "cleaving", which is done by lying with a woman. This is a vow to forever keep this woman as a wife. If there is a pre-existing vow to another man, then this is considered adultery. However, if there is not a pre-existing vow to another man, then the father can nullify this vow. If the father does not nullify this vow, or if the woman is not under a father who can nullify this vow, then she and the man are bound by this vow to remain together. If she, who is bound by this vow, then attempts to create another vow with another man, this is adultery. Or if he, who is bound by this vow, abandons her, then he commits fornication, whore-mongering, or adultery.

Likewise, a woman can become betrothed to a man, which is the equivalent of saying she has made a vow to be his. This follows the exact same pattern, with the exception that the state of being one flesh is not reached until the cleaving has occurred.

This then describes three aspects:
  1. "Cleaving", which creates the one flesh state
  2. The "one flesh" state, which is a vow as valid as betrothal (and perhaps replaces the vow of betrothal?)
  3. "Marriage", which results from a vow (such as the vow of one flesh) being upheld righteously

Unless the case of the woman at the well cannot be reconciled.



Thoughts? I'm not one flesh with this idea, though it makes a lot of sense to me. I haven't had an opportunity to explore it with others yet, so I'm eager to see whether it can withstand the fires of this forum, and find out whether metal or only ash is left behind.
 
"the one you have now" isn't necessarily male, so... she has a female partner? Highly doubtful, but might as well mention it. Also, the underlying Greek might make this interpretation impossible, but I don't trust my understanding enough to check, so I'll just reject this instead.
You are correct; it's an impossible interpretation as the Greek relative pronoun used is masculine in gender.
 
I'd like to propose an interpretation that I have personally (and tentatively) arrived at while following along in these discussions, and make it available for critique. I don't want to derail this thread, but it seems relevant and I have no idea to which of the several related threads this would better belong. Please feel free to move this!

My proposition is this: there are three aspects involved, and becoming one flesh is a vow.

The three aspects would be:
  • "Cleaving"/"joining"
  • One flesh
  • "Marriage"
The way these work together seem to be:
  1. "Cleaving"/"joining", at least the first time, establishes one-fleshedness with that woman
  2. One-fleshedness (or perhaps "cleaving"/"joining") is akin to a vow for "marriage"
  3. When a vow for "marriage" conflicts with an existing vow, this is adultery
  4. Abandoning a vow for "marriage" results in sin of some type, perhaps fornication or adultery (I'm less certain about the specifics here)
Now for the explanation:

#1 - "Cleaving"/"joining" establishes one-fleshedness

This seems the most straightforward to me. Genesis 2:24, coupled with 1 Corinthians 6:16, seems to suggest this is true. If joining with a prostitute, who has presumably joined with others, still results in becoming one flesh, then it may be safe to say that cleaving always results in becoming one flesh.

#2 - One-fleshedness (or perhaps "cleaving") is akin to a vow

This is less straightforward. The best proof-text I can think of would be Exodus 22:16-17 coupled with Numbers 30:5:

Exodus 22:16-17 (LSB):



Numbers 30:5 (LSB):



It seems to me that these two things are related. Under this proposed view, a man who lies with a woman has cleaved with her, and has become one flesh with her (based on #1), and (here's the assumption) has implicitly vowed to stay with her (in "marriage") simply by taking part in the act. This would then place her under the man's authority, and her vows (which would include the implicit vow assumed to be made as a part of cleaving) would be subject to the man's (husband's) authority as well. However, Exodus 22:16-17 is in place to ensure that this final vow made while under the father's authority is still subject to his decision and cannot be bypassed by trying to shift authorities. The father then has the right to forbid his daughter this vow, and refuse to give her to the man.

I would then say that the instruction that states that a widow or a divorced woman must keep her vows would extend to this as well, meaning that a woman under neither father nor husband is bound to the vow that is created by becoming one flesh.

Yes, this draws a connection between two concepts that the Bible does not draw itself. However, I'd like to point to Jesus' own art skills when He drew the connection between commandments 7 (no adultery) and 10 (no coveting) of the ten commandments in Matthew 5:27. In a similar way, I would suggest that there may be many connections between concepts that have not been explicitly described for one reason or another, and that this may be one of them.

#3 - Vows that conflict with existing vows is called adultery

This is fairly straightforward if #2 is accepted. If a company makes an exclusive contract, and then makes another, conflicting exclusive contract, then this is, as described, a conflict. It could be said that it is a violation of the initial contract, and the new contract is of no effect. Whether the other party in the first contract is willing to continue the violated deal is up to individual cases (I don't know law, so I'm probably butchering this).

Similarly, if a woman is one flesh with man "A", and becomes one flesh with man "B" (see #1), this is proposed to be equivalent to saying: If a woman is vowed to man "A", and vows to man "B". As we see in scripture, this is adultery and cause for either divorce or death, depending on the Testament. If this is indeed equivalent, it is then exactly equivalent to the case of the woman betrothed to a man, since that involves a vow. These would then be two different types of vows, but vows nonetheless.

#4 - Abandoning vows is sin

This is a little more nebulous for me, but it seems straightforward enough.

As seen in the instruction on vows in Numbers 5, a man must keep his vow. Unlike a woman under a father or husband, he has no authority over him which can nullify his vows. This is held up in Exodus 22:16-17 where the man who lies with an un-engaged woman must keep her as his wife.

If #2 is accepted, then a man who lies with a woman who is not under an existing vow and then does not keep her as his wife (assuming the father does not object) has made a vow and then abandoned it, thereby violating it. I believe this is referred to as fornication or whore-mongering, and in some cases may be described as adultery. Regardless, the underlying link is the same: the abandonment/violation of a vow.

However, the woman at the well

The woman at the well is described as having had multiple husbands, but the one she has now is not her husband. I still don't know how to reconcile this with my proposition, and I'm surprised other people aren't discussing it more, especially after someone else brought it up... somewhere.

As far as I can tell, there are a few different interpretations which might squeeze this jigsaw puzzle piece in, but even if it fits I'm not so certain the colours match.

Maybe:
  • "the one you have now" isn't necessarily male, so... she has a female partner? Highly doubtful, but might as well mention it. Also, the underlying Greek might make this interpretation impossible, but I don't trust my understanding enough to check, so I'll just reject this instead.
  • she could have been in a situation comparable to how King David had a young woman with whom he never had sex (and thus with whom he never became one flesh). Not really convincing to me.
  • Jesus may have been referring to things as she would have understood them. In other words, her culture would not call this man her husband. Not very convincing either, and I don't really like arguments from culture.
Unless this scenario can be reconciled somehow, a big question would remain: why was the one she had not considered her husband?

Conclusion

The state of being "one flesh" is obtained by "cleaving", which is done by lying with a woman. This is a vow to forever keep this woman as a wife. If there is a pre-existing vow to another man, then this is considered adultery. However, if there is not a pre-existing vow to another man, then the father can nullify this vow. If the father does not nullify this vow, or if the woman is not under a father who can nullify this vow, then she and the man are bound by this vow to remain together. If she, who is bound by this vow, then attempts to create another vow with another man, this is adultery. Or if he, who is bound by this vow, abandons her, then he commits fornication, whore-mongering, or adultery.

Likewise, a woman can become betrothed to a man, which is the equivalent of saying she has made a vow to be his. This follows the exact same pattern, with the exception that the state of being one flesh is not reached until the cleaving has occurred.

This then describes three aspects:
  1. "Cleaving", which creates the one flesh state
  2. The "one flesh" state, which is a vow as valid as betrothal (and perhaps replaces the vow of betrothal?)
  3. "Marriage", which results from a vow (such as the vow of one flesh) being upheld righteously

Unless the case of the woman at the well cannot be reconciled.



Thoughts? I'm not one flesh with this idea, though it makes a lot of sense to me. I haven't had an opportunity to explore it with others yet, so I'm eager to see whether it can withstand the fires of this forum, and find out whether metal or only ash is left behind.
This is a very thorough and detailed study. My first question before I’ve had the time to give it the study it deserves is why do you need the word “vow”? It’s not in the text.
 
Really nice work, TRM. I was going to give a verse that might support your thesis and looked in the NIV. . .

Genesis 24:67 Isaac brought her into the tent of his mother Sarah, and he married Rebekah. So she became his wife, and he loved her; and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death. (Gen 24:67 NIV)

(sigh)

וַיְבִאֶ֣הָ יִצְחָ֗ק הָאֹ֙הֱלָה֙ שָׂרָ֣ה אִמּ֔וֹ וַיִּקַּ֧ח אֶת־רִבְקָ֛ה וַתְּהִי־ל֥וֹ לְאִשָּׁ֖ה וַיֶּאֱהָבֶ֑הָ וַיִּנָּחֵ֥ם יִצְחָ֖ק אַחֲרֵ֥י אִמּֽוֹ׃ פ

So . . In Hebrew: Isaac brought her to the tent of Sarah his mother, and he took Rebekah and she was to him for a wife, and Isaac loved her and he was consoled after his mother.

It would seem at first glance to support your assertion. . .
This is an interesting piece in that there seems to already be a covenant or agreement of sorts in place. Months before this event, Abraham's servant met with Laban and Bethuel and 'purchased' Rebekah. The attendant 'agreementa'/covenant were probably already in place. She was betrothed, but not married...
 
This is an interesting piece in that there seems to already be a covenant or agreement of sorts in place. Months before this event, Abraham's servant met with Laban and Bethuel and 'purchased' Rebekah. The attendant 'agreementa'/covenant were probably already in place. She was betrothed, but not married...
She was betrothed but had not consummated the relationship. She already belonged to a new man.

They had not become one flesh, but transfer of authority and ownership had occurred. She belonged to Isaac despite no sex occurring. He was then free to physically take her with no other obligations as the authority obligation (covenant) had already been transferred.

The authority/obligation, (you could substitute that split word with the word covenant), has been illustrated abundantly throughout all scripture as the model and example of the heavenly “marriage” relationship.
 
She was betrothed but had not consummated the relationship. She already belonged to a new man.

They had not become one flesh, but transfer of authority and ownership had occurred. She belonged to Isaac despite no sex occurring. He was then free to physically take her with no other obligations as the authority obligation (covenant) had already been transferred.

The authority/obligation, (you could substitute that split word with the word covenant), has been illustrated abundantly throughout all scripture as the model and example of the heavenly “marriage” relationship.
But, that's my point. She wasn't his wife, though under covenant, until Isaac 'took her.' Then, 'she became his woman...'
 
This is a very thorough and detailed study. My first question before I’ve had the time to give it the study it deserves is why do you need the word “vow”? It’s not in the text.
Thanks!
You are absolutely right; that is one of the shortcomings of this view. I suppose I "need" the word "vow" as a comparison. It is the best word I can find to describe what I propose is the thing that becoming one flesh creates: a requirement to uphold a relationship. In this view, becoming one flesh is not itself a vow, but is akin to a vow. It could be said, if that is accepted, that the vow of betrothal is a pale imitation, a shadow of what is the one flesh state, something that is fulfilled when the one flesh is achieved.

I don't have too much hard scriptural evidence to back up the idea of it being like a vow. I can only show its similarities in how various things are handled, as I've tried to describe in that post. "If it walks like a duck, and quacks like a duck", maybe it's a duck, or maybe I'm at Disneyland.

As an aside, if that is accepted, it could possibly be said that this, too, is a shadow of the relationship between God and His people: the betrothal of the first covenant, fulfilled by Jesus becoming one flesh with us. The marriage supper of the Lamb hasn't happened yet, but we are described as being members of His body, so maybe it could be said we are already one flesh, of a sort, with Him? Not sure how much of a stretch that is.
 
But, that's my point. She wasn't his wife, though under covenant, until Isaac 'took her.' Then, 'she became his woman...'
Interesting, I’d still want to see at least a mention of something labeled a covenant before I assumed one. Your contention though is that if there was a covenant it didn’t make her his woman?
 
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