I appreciate the help you all tried to give me. Thanks!
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What law would be broken?
- Thread starter blessedwith2
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I don't understand why you ask this very specific question. What makes you think Hosea would have broken a law if he purchased Gomer? And, what makes you think he did not purchase her?
None. He would have purchased her to be a “wife” which was perfectly Lawful. He couldn’t subsequently sell her after having bought her to be a “wife”.
I think there is a misunderstanding here. I'm not stating my opinion here nor am I trying to make any statement of fact. I know I read somewhere that Hosea had to have married two wives, because if He hadn’t some Mosic Law would have been broken. I think it had something to do with the fact that Gomer could not have sold herself into slavery. Perhaps what I read was from another website. I'm not trying to say I agree with what I previously read, I'm just trying to retace my steps to find a source that I lost track of. Any help you can give would be greatly appreciated, but please don't assume this is my position, I'm just doing some research. Thanks.
None and the reason I say that is because YaHWeH told him to take her.
Hosea 1:2 The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD.
We all know YaHWeH will not tell us to go and SIN.
And like TRM said.
I hope this helps.
Do you know a passage of Scripture that would have forbidden him from selling her. I know there is one, but I don't know the passage. Also, what passage would have prevented her from selling herself into slavery?
Selling? Every statement against divorce. He could buy her to marry her, but sale means divorce, and divorce is subject to tight restrictions.
None, I think.
I really think you're barking up the wrong tree.
I don't know of any either, but I know that I read somewhere that there was. Oh well, thanks anyway. I ran across it before, who knows, I may just bump into it again.
@blessedwith1 Is it possible that what you read was a logical argument about how the Law would prevent the situation from happening based on the commandment against adultery? Something to the effect of, since she was committing adultery Hosea could have gone to the elders and said tell this man to give my wife back. He didn’t owe anything for her. In fact, she and the man who's house she was in could have been stoned for adultery, therefore it has to be a different woman. On the other hand, I think Hosea buying his own wife back makes more sense in that the whole thing is a stronger demonstration of God’s love towards us and the wretches that we are.
Thank you.