Hi all!
There was an interesting thread started a few months ago regarding Romans 1:26-27. The general consensus seemed to be that male homosexuality was strictly forbidden, whereas female to female intimate relations were more vague/up to the husband's discretion. Though I certainly see the line of reasoning that was being used, I'm curious to hear more concrete evidence than just "God didn't specifically say women can't be physically intimate". Are there any other resources I could look into to provide more context/insight? Thanks!
There was an interesting thread started a few months ago regarding Romans 1:26-27. The general consensus seemed to be that male homosexuality was strictly forbidden, whereas female to female intimate relations were more vague/up to the husband's discretion. Though I certainly see the line of reasoning that was being used, I'm curious to hear more concrete evidence than just "God didn't specifically say women can't be physically intimate". Are there any other resources I could look into to provide more context/insight? Thanks!