"2 But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual relations with his own wife, and each woman with her own husband."
I am familiar with the argument about the first part of this verse: a man having his own wife to prevent sexual immorality, does not preclude him from having more than one wife. But what about the second part of this verse, "...and each woman her own husband."? In particular the word "own" here? How can a woman have her own husband if she has to share him with sister wives?
I have some thoughts on this, but I would be interested in yours.
I am familiar with the argument about the first part of this verse: a man having his own wife to prevent sexual immorality, does not preclude him from having more than one wife. But what about the second part of this verse, "...and each woman her own husband."? In particular the word "own" here? How can a woman have her own husband if she has to share him with sister wives?
I have some thoughts on this, but I would be interested in yours.