Ah yes, the British Israelite theory. I personally don’t dispute it. Some say the British crown descends from Israel. Could be.I recently went down this rabbit hole somewhat, came across Yair Davidiy and his site https://www.britam.org
Fair warning, there is a lot of information on that site.
He doesn't seem as smart as he thinks he is. Initial point that house of Israel was used for the united 12 tribes before division means what? They were divided and had different prophetic futures spoken for them. What would he do with Jacob prophesying over Ephraim that "His seed will become a multitude of Gentiles" oh wait, the rendered it nations there. Same difference actually. Israel was told "your descendants will inherit the nations"
Bingo.The two houses are historical biblical fact, and you really don't understand history as it relates to the prophesies without comprehending the two houses.
Isn’t 2 Samuel 6 post division?Initial point that house of Israel was used for the united 12 tribes before division means what?
2 Corinthians 11:22 NKJVSometimes Paul called the Jews Israel, the Gentiles were Israelites.
No. King David is alive and leading men in 2 Sam 6 the ten northern tribes were separated after Solomon's death....an he was David's son.Isn’t 2 Samuel 6 post division?
Israelite means a descendant of the man Israel. "The house of Israel" was the family of Israel ....children of Israel....same.Paul was from the tribe of Benjamin, so southern kingdom, therefore a Jew, why then does he call himself an Israelite?
I guess I’m still confused because you said the Israelites are gentiles, but Paul seems to use the term for Jews. Where is the distinction?No. King David is alive and leading men in 2 Sam 6 the ten northern tribes were separated after Solomon's death....an he was David's son.
Israelite means a descendant of the man Israel. "The house of Israel" was the family of Israel ....children of Israel....same.
The ten tribes were not called Jews....ever. They were divorced from YHWH and went into Assyrian captivity long before Judah went to Babylon. The remnant that returned were called Jews.....and also Israel as they were not divorced from YHWH ...they were still in covenant and could use the name.
All 12 tribes were Israel and would forever be Israelites (See Jer. 31) but only those of Judah and Benjamin and some of Levi were Jews.
Kinda like all native Arizonians are Americans....but not all Americans are Arizonians.
For YHWH to redeem His name after Israel made Him look bad, He needed the nations to see their transformation when He redeemed them. Hosea 1:10
"Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God."
In Ezekiel 23 God calls them two sisters the daughter of one mother, and that he married both of them, in Egypt. It seems like He considered them two houses when he lead them out of Egypt, according to that passage, and yet he refers to them as Israelites.No. King David is alive and leading men in 2 Sam 6 the ten northern tribes were separated after Solomon's death....an he was David's son.
The English term "gentile" is the problem, which oftenI guess I’m still confused because you said the Israelites are gentiles, but Paul seems to use the term for Jews. Where is the distinction?
Also if “Israelite” refers to gentiles, why call them gentiles at all?
The King James translators appeared to be recognizing the familial ties between those of the nations coming to faith and those of Judah who heard the message first from Yeshua himself. Gentiles is from the Latin gentilus and means '"of the SAME genes, clan or tribe." Using it in the manner they did was in harmony with what Paul was saying about these people....but has the opposite meaning of how the average christian understands the word today. Most wrongly believe that Gentile means not an Israelite....Not a Jew.Also if “Israelite” refers to gentiles, why call them gentiles at all?
It didn't mean pagan, just like Goy and Ethnos don't mean pagan. It was a neutral term like nation if you look at the use of it in scripture.The English term "gentile" is the problem, which often means 'pagan' - and has more to do with idolatry than bloodline.
"Connotation," is not the same as "synonymous". The words 'goyim' is used in the Hebrew Scriptures well over 500 times, not counting the singular forms. It is rendered as 'nations' in the KJV in 374 of those....[Gentile] didn't mean pagan, just like Goy and Ethnos don't mean pagan. It was a neutral term like nation if you look at the use of it in scripture.