The reason "fathers" and "wives" are not in the second list in Mark 10 could be, for "fathers", similar to why Jesus said to "call no man your father upon earth", and, for "wives", because a wife is one flesh, and he did not want to suggest anything against it; and also one can receive parents and siblings and children through adopting or becoming adopted, but does not receive a spouse through adoption, and so it ties naturally into that picture of adoption.
I do not think the reason was that receiving wives would be adultery, as the putting away of a wife is the adultery, rather than taking another. Taking another is mentioned no doubt because it was the most common reason for divorce. A parallel is "If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish." - Exodus 21:10. Thus what Christ forbids would be contrasted biblically (and in the minds of his hearers) not with monogamy, but with not divorcing: marrying and being faithful to two wives included, like the example in Exodus.
Also to assume that receiving wives would be like divorcing and remarrying of course assumes that you divorce an unbelieving wife, which would be adultery. Losing a wife for the kingdom of heaven obviously does not mean you divorce them: they may divorce you, which of course does not restrict you from marrying, even if you thought marriage was restricted after divorcing someone. According to Scripture a man who has divorced a woman should take her back (if she has not adulterously married another), just as much so if he himself has married another (and this case is actually more in tune with the biblical example). But the culture makes the commandment of God of no effect through their tradition, and in fact call the commandment of God "adultery".
The Bible can be translated perfectly because that is the doctrine of preservation: if we cannot authoritatively translate some word in the Bible, then God has not preserved it, and part is lost. But there are many languages that do not have a translation, many more that only have an imperfect one, and it is not at all impossible that English is one of them, with their godlike pride of culture. The KJV has been defended by the same arguments they argue against in the case of corrupt modern translations, though the KJV is at least far less corrupt.
There is no pride in saying that man can perfectly translate the Bible. You can't do everything perfectly, but you can spell "cat" perfectly, without error (obviously there is no pride there). Perfection of translation is the same, just more tedious, and is limited only by our knowledge of what the original work to be translated means. In the case of the Bible, perfect knowledge can be had through the preservation of God: if we have access to that and acknowledge it, then perfect translation is only a matter of patience, not doubt.
As to which books, this was decided by the prophets who wrote them. Many extra-biblical books were read alongside the Bible, but which books the Bible consists of has been accepted since the prophets. Catholics canonized these extra-biblical books (just as they canonized their own traditions), and Protestants tried to delete whole books of Scripture, but the Bible has continued the same before and after their mishandling. God spoke many things that are not in the Bible, as the Bible records, but through his prophets he chose not to include them in the Scriptures, and thus they are not perfectly preserved into this present time.
As to Paul, I would point out something people seem to miss:
"6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
11 For there is no respect of persons with God." - Romans 2
This could have taken straight out of Ezekiel 33. The reason people see some kind of disconnect with Paul is because they aren't reading him. They are only reading the "unstable and unlearned men" who "wrest his words to their own destruction" as Peter said. Paul got the highest degree of revelation, and thus he must in a sense be read last of all, after one is stable and learned in the Scriptures, because Paul has many things "hard to be understood", and it is these things that had already in his day become the target of many false doctrines.