I will put out that even after Bathsheba commited adultery with David, she was still considered the wife of Uriah until his death. So the act did not disolve the union.
Sorry, no sale. For a number of reasons.
Uriah did not KNOW. He COULD have 'put her away,' or had her STONED (along with David, although that might have been problematic for an underling.)
And Uriah ended up DEAD, which, yes, "dissolved the union." Note that, later, Solomon, her son by David, WAS allowed to not only sit on the throne, but be in the line of Messiah.
[And Nick, and Samuel, are correct: your phrasing is 'problematic.']
Most scholars note (I would say correctly) that the phrase associated with her, "wife of Uriah," was to point out David's sin, for which he suffered (losing the son, a death) and VERY much made
t'shuvah.
The point, relative to this thread, is that a woman guilty of adultery is not
necessarily a 'divorcee'. She is an adulteress. Her husband could give her a 'get', if he chose, perhaps in preference to the 'death option.' But it's an act of grace on his (or His) part.