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General DIVORCE AND REMARRIAGE

Of course it can be broken. You just have to follow the righteous procedure:

Deuteronomy 24:1-2 NLT
Suppose a man marries a woman but she does not please him. Having discovered something wrong with her, he writes a document of divorce, hands it to her, and sends her away from his house. 2 When she leaves his house, she is free to marry another man.

The Father in Heaven gave Israel the certificate:

Isaiah 50:1 NKJV
Thus says the LORD: “Where is the certificate of your mother’s divorce, Whom I have put away? Or which of My creditors is it to whom I have sold you? For your iniquities you have sold yourselves, And for your transgressions your mother has been put away.

Sending away your wife (mis translated to divorce in the Gospel of Matthew) - without the certificate - is “NOT” the right procedure. This is what the passages in Matthew are mostly referring to - they’ve just been terribly mis-translated. That same Greek word they render in the English to “divorce” is used elsewhere when Yahshua “sends away” the crowds. If you have sex with a woman that has just been sent away (without the certificate) - you’ve committed adultery - if she still has a living husband. Without the certificate - she’s married to her husband.

And remember - if Yahshua changed the perfect law (psalm 19:7) - by adding or taking away from it - he would had sinned - and thereby - not meet the requirements to be the Messiah.
I see your argument here, I think I’ll have to agree now. why do you think that a few verses later in deut 24 it says that the first man can not take her back if she gets divorced by the second? Out of curiousity.
 
Of course it can be broken. You just have to follow the righteous procedure:

Deuteronomy 24:1-2 NLT
Suppose a man marries a woman but she does not please him. Having discovered something wrong with her, he writes a document of divorce, hands it to her, and sends her away from his house. 2 When she leaves his house, she is free to marry another man.

The Father in Heaven gave Israel the certificate:

Isaiah 50:1 NKJV
Thus says the LORD: “Where is the certificate of your mother’s divorce, Whom I have put away? Or which of My creditors is it to whom I have sold you? For your iniquities you have sold yourselves, And for your transgressions your mother has been put away.

Sending away your wife (mis translated to divorce in the Gospel of Matthew) - without the certificate - is “NOT” the right procedure. This is what the passages in Matthew are mostly referring to - they’ve just been terribly mis-translated. That same Greek word they render in the English to “divorce” is used elsewhere when Yahshua “sends away” the crowds. If you have sex with a woman that has just been sent away (without the certificate) - you’ve committed adultery - if she still has a living husband. Without the certificate - she’s married to her husband.

And remember - if Yahshua changed the perfect law (psalm 19:7) - by adding or taking away from it - he would had sinned - and thereby - not meet the requirements to be the Messiah.
I know Jesus didn’t change the law, what’s your opinion of

Matthew 19:9 A (KJV)
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery:

Does the law explain this expectation for requiring fornication for the wife to be put away? I haven’t heard many of these explanations yet
 
If this divorcement is a full cancellation of vows, what does this verse mean to you?
It is vital to establish what God meant by what He said, and not what a passage means to you or me. The first question to ask is, "What did God say?" In the verse you quote in English there is a distinction drawn by our Lord with the use of two different Greek words. These Greek words have two distinct meanings. Unfortunately, this difference is missed in the English translation. To "put away" is not the same as "divorce", as has been already pointed out by some above.

Adultery occurs when a man has a sexual relationship with a woman who is the wife of another man. If she has been set free by her man, she is free to marry another man (see Deut. 24:2) - without either party committing adultery. Shalom
 
It is vital to establish what God meant by what He said, and not what a passage means to you or me. The first question to ask is, "What did God say?" In the verse you quote in English there is a distinction drawn by our Lord with the use of two different Greek words. These Greek words have two distinct meanings. Unfortunately, this difference is missed in the English translation. To "put away" is not the same as "divorce", as has been already pointed out by some above.

Adultery occurs when a man has a sexual relationship with a woman who is the wife of another man. If she has been set free by her man, she is free to marry another man (see Deut. 24:2) - without either party committing adultery. Shalom
Thank you for your information, when I say what do you think, I don’t mean your arbitrary opinion. I mean what you think God said. I would appreciate if you’d read my other questions too and see if you can provide comment. God bless
 
Thank you for your information, when I say what do you think, I don’t mean your arbitrary opinion. I mean what you think God said. I would appreciate if you’d read my other questions too and see if you can provide comment. God bless
He has His reasons. We are to obey - whether we know the reason or we don’t. But for my opinion - I think Jeremiah 3 has some answer:

Jeremiah 3 NLT
“If a man divorces a woman and she goes and marries someone else, he will not take her back again, for that would surely corrupt the land. But you have prostituted yourself with many lovers, so why are you trying to come back to me?” says the Lord. 2 “Look at the shrines on every hilltop. Is there any place you have not been defiled by your adultery with other gods?

This is referring to the Northern Kingdom of Israel - that did violence to His Torah - and behaved like the other nations instead of being Set Apart and Holy to YAHUAH.
 
I know Jesus didn’t change the law, what’s your opinion of

Matthew 19:9 A (KJV)
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery:

Does the law explain this expectation for requiring fornication for the wife to be put away? I haven’t heard many of these explanations yet
If a wife has already fornicated with another man - she (and the man she fornicated with) have already committed a crime punishable with the death penalty. Obviously, the husband would be furious with her if he found out. And in such cases - he would not be guilty of simply kicking her - in anger - out of his house without any certificate. She’s already committed adultery on her own doing. He’s not responsible if he sends her away, and she goes out and continues in lawlessness.

But the Torah is clear - a man can issue a certificate of divorce for reasons other than fornication.
 
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Matthew 19:7 (KJV) They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

Doesn’t this suggest divorce = putting away?

NO!!!!! Because they are not. Else why does Deuteronomy 24:1-3 say PRECISELY that, not once, but twice?
 
I see your argument here, I think I’ll have to agree now. why do you think that a few verses later in deut 24 it says that the first man can not take her back if she gets divorced by the second? Out of curiousity.
My opinion is that the man is to be logical and deliberate about something as serious as his wife. He is to let his yes be yes and his no be no. Human nature for some includes husband sanctioned adultery. They call it swinging, but by prohibiting a man from taking back a wife after he divorced her....and she moved on to a new partner, YHWH made it impossible for a man to "lawfully" partner swap.


I know Jesus didn’t change the law, what’s your opinion of

Matthew 19:9 A (KJV)
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except [it be] for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery:

Does the law explain this expectation for requiring fornication for the wife to be put away? I haven’t heard many of these explanations yet
The Greek word translated fornication there is pornia and would include men who's "women" were from nations they were forbidden to intermarry with, and it would also cover other forbidden unions like incest or marrying a wife's mother or daughter (death penalty there for all)

In such cases the union was NOT MARRIAGE.... it was SIN. So in the case of a union that was PORNIA no certificate of divorce was required....just PUT HER AWAY (stop sinning) see the example in the book of Ezra.
 
Matthew 19:7 (KJV) They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

Doesn’t this suggest divorce = putting away?
Actually it suggests the exact opposite. Note the word "and" that I have bolded. This shows clearly that a writing of divorcement is different from putting away - it talks about doing one and also the other. You can't do one thing "and" the same thing. You can only do one thing "and" another thing.
 
If a wife has already fornicated with another man - she (and the man she fornicated with) have already committed a crime punishable with the death penalty. Obviously, the husband would be furious with her if he found out. And in such cases - he would not be guilty of simply kicking her - in anger - out of his house without any certificate. She’s already committed adultery on her own doing. He’s not responsible if he sends her away, and she goes out and continues in lawlessness.

But the Torah is clear - a man can issue a certificate of divorce for reasons other than fornication.
Okay, what are all the reasons a man can divorce?
 
Actually it suggests the exact opposite. Note the word "and" that I have bolded. This shows clearly that a writing of divorcement is different from putting away - it talks about doing one and also the other. You can't do one thing "and" the same thing. You can only do one thing "and" another thing.
i agree, just still combing through these nuances
 
Of course it can be broken. You just have to follow the righteous procedure:

Deuteronomy 24:1-2 NLT
Suppose a man marries a woman but she does not please him. Having discovered something wrong with her, he writes a document of divorce, hands it to her, and sends her away from his house. 2 When she leaves his house, she is free to marry another man.

The Father in Heaven gave Israel the certificate:

Isaiah 50:1 NKJV
Thus says the LORD: “Where is the certificate of your mother’s divorce, Whom I have put away? Or which of My creditors is it to whom I have sold you? For your iniquities you have sold yourselves, And for your transgressions your mother has been put away.

Sending away your wife (mis translated to divorce in the Gospel of Matthew) - without the certificate - is “NOT” the right procedure. This is what the passages in Matthew are mostly referring to - they’ve just been terribly mis-translated. That same Greek word they render in the English to “divorce” is used elsewhere when Yahshua “sends away” the crowds. If you have sex with a woman that has just been sent away (without the certificate) - you’ve committed adultery - if she still has a living husband. Without the certificate - she’s married to her husband.

And remember - if Yahshua changed the perfect law (psalm 19:7) - by adding or taking away from it - he would had sinned - and thereby - not meet the requirements to be the Messiah.
Which verses specifically have the mis-translation? And would that include this passage? Also is it mis translated in every English version or just some

Matthew 5:31-32 (KJV) 31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
 
Okay, what are all the reasons a man can divorce?
There's no list. "Because he finds some 'unseemly-ness' [Hebrew: ervah - it's an interesting word - look at the prior/subsequent uses] in her."

BUT:
Can != should. [is NOT equal to, or the same as]

In general, he bears HER guilt, and he will stand before YHVH to answer for the choice.

And Yahushua says it was 'allowed,' but, again, that does not mean he SHOULD. (Warnings abound; Shaul/Paul says essentially, it may be OK, but not 'profitable,' appropriate...etc.)

And read Matthew 5:31-32 carefully (meaning - KJV got it WRONG!!!) The so-called "exception clause," is the OPPOSITE: If she has ALREADY committed adultery, she is (duh) already an adulterer. You can't MAKE her one ['causeth her'] by 'putting her away.' In such a case, she is not even owed the courtesy/privilege of a 'certificate of divorce,' making her eligible for remarriage. (See Isaiah 50, Jeremiah 3, Ezekiel 23 - YHVH was nothing if not patient and forgiving.)

Note - again - and this is vital: The POINT Yahushua is making, over and over in that entire chapter 5 sequence, is "you have HEARD it said" - WRONGLY!!!! - but "I tell you" what it really says (i.e., What I Wrote!) He didn't change so much as "one yod or tiddle".

This is only hard because it has been lied about for so long, so extensively.
 
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Which verses specifically have the mis-translation?
Lots...
And would that include this passage? Also is it mis translated in every English version or just some
In many, if not even most. And they make different errors, sometimes getting part right. (example: some say "he causes her," others don't even get that right, and say something instead like "HE COMMITS".)

Part of the problem, however, is context. They (those teaching) ASSUME He was changing His own Word, or "raising the bar," or whatever other BS you've probably heard, rather than what He just said: Teaching what you have HEARD it said, and which was WRONG.
 
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Matthew 5:31-32 (KJV)
That Pile of You-know-what, for example, is one of the verses I point out FIRST to those who are "KJV-only" and claim it is "without error." There's a WHOPPER!

It's self-contradictory, easy to show someone, and even obvious just looking at a concordance.
 
There's no list. "Because he finds some 'unseemly-ness' [Hebrew: ervah - it's an interesting word - look at the prior/subsequent uses] in her."

BUT:
Can =! should. [is NOT equal to, or the same as]

In general, he bears HER guilt, and he will stand before YHVH to answer for the choice.

And Yahushua says it was 'allowed,' but, again, that does not mean he SHOULD. (Warnings abound; Shaul/Paul says essentially, it may be OK, but not 'profitable,' appropriate...etc.)

And read Matthew 5:31-32 carefully (meaning - KJV got it WRONG!!!) The so-called "exception clause," is the OPPOSITE: If she has ALREADY committed adultery, she is (duh) already an adulterer. You can't MAKE her one ['causeth her'] by 'putting her away.' In such a case, she is not even owed the courtesy/privilege of a 'certificate of divorce,' making her eligible for remarriage. (See Isaiah 50, Jeremiah 3, Ezekiel 23 - YHVH was nothing if not patient and forgiving.)

Note - again - and this is vital: The POINT Yahushua is making, over and over in that entire chapter 5 sequence, is "you have HEARD it said" - WRONGLY!!!! - but "I tell you" what it really says (i.e., What I Wrote!) He didn't change so much as "one yod or tiddle".

This is only hard because it has been lied about for so long, so extensively.
2 questions, from your study of the word ervah, what does it include? Secondly, how is a man able to marry a woman who has been put away, if she is still bound to that husband? Without his permission? Or would it just be void on the day he hears it
 
That Pile of You-know-what, for example, is one of the verses I point out FIRST to those who are "KJV-only" and claim it is "without error." There's a WHOPPER!

It's self-contradictory, easy to show someone, and even obvious just looking at a concordance.
It’s not as such as the Greek. (See also 1 Timothy 3 “husband of one wife”), but stands alone compared to the other English versions by far. Which is why I am “KJV only” and still use the interlinear often, as I do not know fluent Greek or Hebrew!
 
2 questions, from your study of the word ervah, what does it include?

'ervah' H6172 often rendered "nakedness" in KJV. First use Genesis 9:22, when Ham saw whatever it was in his father, Noach.

עֶרְוָה​

Then it was Joseph/Yosef accusing his brothers of coming to "spy out the nakedness" of his land.

It's in Leviticus 18 (forbidden relations) where we see the list most may recognize, and the context that is more familiar. But - it's a bit "bigger" than just looking at a naked body.

Thus, it is the husband who "knows it when he sees it" in a potential or current wife, but WILL stand before YHVH (IMHO) for his judgment.

Secondly, how is a man able to marry a woman who has been put away, if she is still bound to that husband? Without his permission? Or would it just be void on the day he hears it
OK - all of this follows directly from what you've already seen. Just follow the logic, in spite of what we've "heard it said." ;)

Does a woman who MAY be a wife candidate, but is not a virgin, have a "sefer keretutah," or "certificate of divorce"?

If she DOES - she "has no living husband," and has TWO WITNESSES (!) to prove it: Her own, and her (now EX-) husband.

If she does NOT, the "safe bet" is that she "still has a living husband," and sleeping with her is adultery.

(Vows, Numbers 30 - wow, but that's a Whole 'Nuther Thread... ;) )

I put up a thread a while back about "advice for the wedding night" that addressed that...
 
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