Maybe it's not a prophecy, but it is as good a prophetic given it happened before and again and still happens today (I'm looking at you NIV).
OK so we are agreed that it is not in prophetical language and not considered theologically to be a prophecy and as such not a specific prophecy fulfilled by the Masoretes. good.
If we are just commenting on the human condition than it's a bit sensational and unfair to assert it's speaking specifically about the Masoretes; preservers of the
only complete original language TaNaKH (Old Testament) we have today.
I've seen enough examples of seemingly intentional changes to Christological OT passages to conquer with the Eastern Orthodox opinion that the Masoretes modified the scriptures in an attempt to weaken the case for Christianity.
Yeah, you'll excuse me if I don't lean on the
Eastern Orthodox or
Roman Catholic churches for their "opinions." I have visited several
Eastern Orthodox churches in Russia. My favorite one was where the priest was axe-murdered for being overly friendly to Jews.
It was a sweet church; they even say "shalom" to you when you enter. They also had astrology pamphlets for the public in that church so there's that. Appeal to Authority definitely invalid when appealing to those guys.
Numerous example such as NT quotes of the OT including things found only in the LXX or more closely following it (sometimes reading completely differently than the Masoretic text), the famous Isaiah virgin passage change...
Let me stop you there.
There is no
Isaiah virgin passage change and the Masoretic text of Isaiah is amazingly close to that of the Dead Sea Scrolls Isaiah text. I'll 1st demonstrate this claim regarding the "virgin birth" passage in question.
Masoretic text:
לָ֠כֵן* יִתֵּ֨ן אֲדֹנָ֥י ה֛וּא לָכֶ֖ם א֑וֹת הִנֵּ֣ה הָעַלְמָ֗ה הָרָה֙ וְיֹלֶ֣דֶת בֵּ֔ן וְקָרָ֥את שְׁמ֖וֹ עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל׃
Isaiah 7:14 the word you allege changed by the Masoretes is
ha'almah "the maiden" in
bold
Dead Sea Scrolls text [from cave 1 at Qumran]:
לכן יתן יהוה הוה לכ [אות] ה֯נה העלמה הרה וילדת בן וקרא שמו עמנואל
the same word
ha'almah "the maiden" appears in the Dead Sea Scrolls as in the Masoretic text
Now let's examine the
Septuagint
1
διὰ τοῦτο δώσει Κύριος αὐτὸς ὑμῖν σημείον· ἰδοὺ ἡ παρθένος ἐν γαστρὶ λήμψεται καὶ τέξεται υἱόν, καὶ καλέσεις τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ Ἐμμανουήλ·
Here we have these words in bold he' parthenos "the virgin / the maiden"
That's right, it can be translated "virgin" and it can also be translated "maiden." A perfect choice for the translation since the Hebrew original as penned in Isaiah chose a word 'maiden' which properly interpreted in context (of being a sign from G-d i.e. she's giving birth) makes perfect sense to understand it as "virgin."
Proof that the Greek word is used in the Septuagint both ways follows:
parthenos is used to map to Hebrew betulah "virgin" 42 times: Ge 24:16; Ex 22:16, 17; Lev 21:3, 14; Dt 22:19, 23, 28; 32:25; Jdg 19:24; 21:12; 2 Sam. 13:2, 18; 2 Kings 19:21; 2 Ch 36:17; Es 2:17; Job 31:1; Ps 44:15; 77:63; 148:12; Isa 23:4; 37:22; 47:1; 62:5; Je 18:13; 26:11; 28:22; 38:4, 13, 21; Lam 1:4, 15, 18; 2:10, 13, 21; 5:11; Ezek 9:6; 44:22; Amos 5:2; 8:13; Zec 9:17
parthenos is used to map to Hebrew ne'urah "a lasse, young unmarried girl, parents of newly wedded girl" 5 times: Ge 24:14, 16, 55; 34:3; 1 Sam 1:2
parthenos is used to map to Hebrew kalah "a bride" 1 time: Jer. 2:32
parthenos is used to map to Hebrew b'tulim "evidence of virginity" 1 time: Le. 21:23
parthenos is used to map to Hebrew 'almah (the word in question) twice:
Ge 24:43; Isa 7:14
The last one is our verse; we see that the translators of the Septuagint chose the same Greek word to map to
'almah in both passages. In Genesis 24:43 she is indeed '
a maiden'; and this is the proper understanding here "
maiden" since later in the narrative we are given the additional information that she is
also a
b'etulah "virgin."
Targum Onqelos translates the word from Genesis as '
ulemah in Aramaic meaning "a youth."
OK now we've seen that the Greek word
parthenos is not simply "a virgin" but has a spectrum of meanings ranging from 'a bride' to 'a lasse' or even the '
parents of a newly married girl.' As such, it is
improper speculation to assume some wicked intent against the guys who bring us our
only complete Hebrew bible.
For more support on the ambiguity of
parthenos here is an example of the adjectival form used in an excerpt from Koine Greek outside the bible:
The adj. παρθεν(ε)ίος is found...παρήγκελκά συ (l. παρήγγελκά σοι) ἄλλα (for accentuation, Archiv vi. p. 379)
ἅπαξ ὅτι ἆρε̣ν (l. ἆρον) τὰ παρθένειά σου τέκνα, “I have charged you more than once ‘Take away your children born of a maiden’ ”
Moulton, J. H., & Milligan, G. (1930). The vocabulary of the Greek Testament (p. 494). London: Hodder and Stoughton.
The initial entry from this lexicon (which is often quoted by BDAG) is simply, "“
maiden,” “virgin”
In similar vein the massive Liddell Scott British lexicon of Greek begins the entry for
parthenos thusly
:
1. maiden,
girl
2. of unmarried women who are
not virgins
3. the Virgin goddess, as a title of Athena at Athens, of the vestal virgins
4. the constellation Virgo
5. pupil
6. Metaphor of the number seven
Liddell, H. G., Scott, R., Jones, H. S., & McKenzie, R. (1996). A Greek-English lexicon (p. 1339). Oxford:Clarendon Press.
In summary, maybe you shouldn't be so hard on the Masoretes. The added vowels to the only complete Hebrew bible we have and if anyone actually thinks the Septuagint is any more 'reliable' then think again.
There are so many variances to the textual manuscripts of the Septuagint that it took nearly 100 years to create a complete critical edition for it. The result is the fabulous
Göttingen Septuaginta and it's a massive 67 volumes critical edition of the Septuagint. We find nowhere near these kinds of variations in the Hebrew text of the Tanakh. I love the LXX as a resource and not a day goes by usually when I am not looking something up in there to see how the ancients understood the Hebrew text, but there's just simply not any evidence of the Masoretes intentionally changing words in scripture.
This kind of conspiratorial perspective makes a huge assumption and that's that Jews really care what Christians think. I care of course, but to get my drift there are very few references to Christianity or the Christ in the sea of talmud (think 40k pages) and I've only noticed 1 reference to Christian "error" in the entire Miqra'ot G'dilot (Rabbinical commentary on the bible, also known as
Der Rabbinerbibel).
Ironically it was the Jews who continued to maintain the "oracles of God" which were entrusted to them as put forth by the Apostle Shaul. If someone thinks this stopped after Christianity was started then please show me the Hebrew bible that was maintained by the Gentile believers and we'll just use that from now on (happily).
That's right, the Gentile believers did not care to maintain the Hebrew scriptures so it seems God continued to use the Jews for this task, and so we have thankfully, the Masoretic text miraculously and meticulously preserved.
If anyone is interested in learning how the Septuagint is used critically in understanding the Masoretic text along with the Dead Sea scrolls, I recommend
The Text-Critical Use of the Septuagint in Biblical Research (3rd edition, revised and expanded