Eristhophanes
Member
When a woman loses her virginity to an eligible man, she's married to him. That right there causes contention and there are differing "interpretations" because a long time ago it was in the church's interest to claim that only the church could make one married and a man and woman had to appear in a ceremony and consent to marriage in order for the church to bless the union. Yet, that isn't what the Word says.
Genesis 2:24 states how a marriage begins, and what it doesn't say describes the standard of marriage. Scripture is best interpreted by Scripture and Matthew 19 speaks volumes on the interpretation of Genesis 2:24. It is inescapable that Genesis 2:24 did not restrict a man to a single wife, nor did it provide him the authority to divorce his wife once he married her. Thus, the standard is a permanent but not exclusive commitment by the man.
Then came Moses. Notice the text of Matthew 19. "Moses permitted you." Christ is clearly pointing out that is not a command from God. That is Moses, acting in his judicial capacity as the Judge of Israel making a decision to change the standard of Genesis 2:24 to allow divorce. Perhaps the tone was not one of contempt when He said "Moses permitted you" but it was certainly possible, I would say probable.
People look at the text and see "except for porneia" and see a justification. No, He was talking about all the divorces for other reasons. Unless it was for adultery, incest, idolatry... it wasn't legitimate. They were still married. That was the issue and if you could read it like a judge you'd see that.
Then we have Christ, in the only place between His ascension and the Book of Revelation, popping in to give instruction to His church on the subject of marriage in 1st Corinthians 7:10-11. The only place in which the Risen and Ascendent Lord gives instruction to His church prior to the book of Revelation. And compare what He said to the comments from Matthew 19. This screams for attention. But that's too contentious. The truth is one is no longer under the Law but under Christ. And He said not to do certain things...
Genesis 2:24 states how a marriage begins, and what it doesn't say describes the standard of marriage. Scripture is best interpreted by Scripture and Matthew 19 speaks volumes on the interpretation of Genesis 2:24. It is inescapable that Genesis 2:24 did not restrict a man to a single wife, nor did it provide him the authority to divorce his wife once he married her. Thus, the standard is a permanent but not exclusive commitment by the man.
Then came Moses. Notice the text of Matthew 19. "Moses permitted you." Christ is clearly pointing out that is not a command from God. That is Moses, acting in his judicial capacity as the Judge of Israel making a decision to change the standard of Genesis 2:24 to allow divorce. Perhaps the tone was not one of contempt when He said "Moses permitted you" but it was certainly possible, I would say probable.
People look at the text and see "except for porneia" and see a justification. No, He was talking about all the divorces for other reasons. Unless it was for adultery, incest, idolatry... it wasn't legitimate. They were still married. That was the issue and if you could read it like a judge you'd see that.
Then we have Christ, in the only place between His ascension and the Book of Revelation, popping in to give instruction to His church on the subject of marriage in 1st Corinthians 7:10-11. The only place in which the Risen and Ascendent Lord gives instruction to His church prior to the book of Revelation. And compare what He said to the comments from Matthew 19. This screams for attention. But that's too contentious. The truth is one is no longer under the Law but under Christ. And He said not to do certain things...