Also, can anyone find an Old Testament reference to the Law being a covenant. Its entirely possible I didn't look hard enough because I haven't found it yet. Please keep this thread narrowly focused on defining the various covenants. We can take our conclusions here back to other threads to beat each other over the heads with.
Well that is a good question. In fact its a very good question..
It seems to me that there is a lot of overlap, but nevertheless it isn't a complete fit.
I've only looked at Strong's for verses where they both occur. Usually there is no discernable difference
1Ch_16:17 And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant,
(that looks like they are both the same as "same")
But here there is
Ezr_10:3 Now therefore let us make a covenant with our God to put away all the wives, and such as are born of them, according to the counsel of my lord, and of those that tremble at the commandment of our God; and let it be done according to the law.
the difference being that Ezra can organise the making of a new covenant totally acceptably, but we know what happened in NT times when people tried to make new laws... So only God can make the laws but covenants could be made commercially and sometimes confirmed with an oath (Gen 26:28).
There are hundreds of OT reference to law and covenant and related words.
My personal shortcut to this one would be to look at the OATH in the NT.
Luk 1:71 That we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us;
Luk 1:72 To perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember
his holy covenant;
Luk 1:73 The oath which he sware to our father Abraham,
Luk 1:74 That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve him without fear,
so the oath IS the covenant made with Abraham
Heb_7:21 (For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him,
The Lord sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec
but no priest can come from Judah as Uzziah found out to his cost
And therefore
Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Heb 7:12 For t
he priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
So the difference is the Oath of God confirms the covenant made with Abraham but at the same time that means the law given by Moses has to be changed and the old covenant made at the time of the Exodus have to be changed.
Exo_24:8 And Moses took the blood, and sprinkled it on the people, and said,
Behold the blood of the covenant, which the LORD hath made with you concerning all these words.
and then Hebrews immediately moves on to discuss the New Covenant of Jer 31:31.
When Israel accept the New Covenant they will be saved from their enemies (Luke 1:71,74)
They hadn't got to that point by AD70, and they still can't serve him "without fear".