I hope that I did not offend you with my questions, as I stated I have not formed an opinion yet on this particular subject, and asked for clarification from you regarding your understanding of God’s Law in Leviticus, and how it relates to the Ten Commandments. I purposefully stated that I was not challenging you. My question was based on this sentence,
“And after this life lesson occurred, God laid down the law and said, "Never do it this way."
I understand now that you believe, regarding adultery, that
“this was commonly understood long before the Mosaic law was given.”
because
“Adultery is a completely different sin--it is breaking a covenant before God by usurping the covenant of another”.
I agree that this was known, and I believe that it was known because God told them, and this is why it was commonly understood. This has caused me to want to look at what law or instruction the people of the world lived under before Sinai. I have heard that there was no law. I have heard that the 10 was given to Israel, and so gentiles are not under the 10, but under the law that was given to the world through Adam, and then again to Noah. Those that believe this refer to themselves as Noah-ide. The belief is that the instructions were to hold God’s people to a higher standard than the world, and that these Leviticus passages do not have to concern a “gentile” because they are for “jews”.
I do find it interesting that the verses in Leviticus seem to be a mixture of adultery and incest bans. If adultery was known to the world as sin, then why is verse 16 mentioned? Or 14 and 15? I am not challenging you. The question is something that is raised in my own mind. If everyone knew that adultery was sin, then why put that in there? Why put in to the passage verses that dealt with sins that were already covered?
And why is the term “vex” only used in that one particular verse. It seems like other acts forbidden in this passage would “vex” as well. I can see how it would “vex” a mother to have her daughter be married to the mom’s husband. These are all interesting parts of this passage, and like I said, I am not challenging anyone, I have not formed an opinion yet.
In closing,
“Does it please God to violate his Law and go against what he says is the right thing to do? That's for your conscience to decide and you to give answer for in the day of judgement.”
This is a little hard to swallow. I did not say that I agreed or disagreed with you. The other members are the ones posting in a manner that would seem to be in direct opposition to your position on this particular topic. Asking a question in this manner seems rude and condescending. Who would say that it is proper to “violate his Law and go against what he says is the right thing to do”? I don’t think it is a matter of my conscience either, or has anything to do with my answer on judgement day because God is pretty specific about those that violate His Law. Those people don’t please Him. The question is whether or not marrying two sisters is against His Law, or if it is only against His Law if it is done to “vex” one in her lifetime. It seems like you are upset with me, to the point of bringing up concepts of me and what happens when I stand in front of God on judgement day, and I am sorry if I offended you. I prefer that this forum and message board be of a more relaxed nature, with discussion that goes back and forth for the benefit and edification of everyone. If my questions came across as a challenge, then I apologize. I specifically said that I wanted your understanding.
Did I say anything yet about not challenging and being sorry....
“And after this life lesson occurred, God laid down the law and said, "Never do it this way."
I understand now that you believe, regarding adultery, that
“this was commonly understood long before the Mosaic law was given.”
because
“Adultery is a completely different sin--it is breaking a covenant before God by usurping the covenant of another”.
I agree that this was known, and I believe that it was known because God told them, and this is why it was commonly understood. This has caused me to want to look at what law or instruction the people of the world lived under before Sinai. I have heard that there was no law. I have heard that the 10 was given to Israel, and so gentiles are not under the 10, but under the law that was given to the world through Adam, and then again to Noah. Those that believe this refer to themselves as Noah-ide. The belief is that the instructions were to hold God’s people to a higher standard than the world, and that these Leviticus passages do not have to concern a “gentile” because they are for “jews”.
I do find it interesting that the verses in Leviticus seem to be a mixture of adultery and incest bans. If adultery was known to the world as sin, then why is verse 16 mentioned? Or 14 and 15? I am not challenging you. The question is something that is raised in my own mind. If everyone knew that adultery was sin, then why put that in there? Why put in to the passage verses that dealt with sins that were already covered?
And why is the term “vex” only used in that one particular verse. It seems like other acts forbidden in this passage would “vex” as well. I can see how it would “vex” a mother to have her daughter be married to the mom’s husband. These are all interesting parts of this passage, and like I said, I am not challenging anyone, I have not formed an opinion yet.
In closing,
“Does it please God to violate his Law and go against what he says is the right thing to do? That's for your conscience to decide and you to give answer for in the day of judgement.”
This is a little hard to swallow. I did not say that I agreed or disagreed with you. The other members are the ones posting in a manner that would seem to be in direct opposition to your position on this particular topic. Asking a question in this manner seems rude and condescending. Who would say that it is proper to “violate his Law and go against what he says is the right thing to do”? I don’t think it is a matter of my conscience either, or has anything to do with my answer on judgement day because God is pretty specific about those that violate His Law. Those people don’t please Him. The question is whether or not marrying two sisters is against His Law, or if it is only against His Law if it is done to “vex” one in her lifetime. It seems like you are upset with me, to the point of bringing up concepts of me and what happens when I stand in front of God on judgement day, and I am sorry if I offended you. I prefer that this forum and message board be of a more relaxed nature, with discussion that goes back and forth for the benefit and edification of everyone. If my questions came across as a challenge, then I apologize. I specifically said that I wanted your understanding.
Did I say anything yet about not challenging and being sorry....