I am presenting a contrast- Why does Paul refer to marry when he has used "one flesh" in other passages. Of course the author can use whichever he chooses and that is the conundrum. What is the thinking here- is marrying an older woman that is passed childbearing NOT being one flesh? It is still "marry".Why would that marriage not be one flesh?
On the other hand, a man can become "one-flesh" by having sex with a prostitute and yet Not call her married to him.
Now before ya'll jump me for asking the same thing from another post in a different way, I still see inconsistencies in interpretation of plain writings and word usage.