• Biblical Families is not a dating website. It is a forum to discuss issues relating to marriage and the Bible, and to offer guidance and support, not to find a wife. Click here for more information.

The Husband’s Call to Love Is A Call to Rule

That's the point. Somewhere Eve got confused, because when the serpent tempted her, she responded "We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden: But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die." She was right that she was not to eat it - but where did she get the idea that she was not to touch it either?

The simplest explanation I can see is that Adam was told not to eat the fruit, then along came Eve. He knew he was responsible for her, cared about her very deeply, and wanted to make sure that she didn't die. So he told her not to even touch it, and did so in such a way that he either directly stated "God said don't even touch it", or unintentionally gave her the impression that God had said so (e.g. "God said don't eat it, don't even touch it", with the second instruction being from him but not clearly).

And that's completely reasonable and understandable. Who wouldn't try to add an even greater hedge of protection around the only woman in the world? It's a completely understandable action. But it meant that when she DID touch it anyway, and didn't die, she now probably thought eating it would be ok too and Adam must have been wrong about what God said.

The point for this discussion though is that Eve had it wrong. She did not repeat God's instruction clearly. Therefore, she most likely did not hear it directly, but heard it second-hand, through Adam. The addition of "do not touch" bears strong marks of the loving care of a husband relaying an instruction while adding an extra hedge of caution around it.

It all fits together completely clearly if Adam was Eve's head from the beginning.
 
That's the point. Somewhere Eve got confused, because when the serpent tempted her, she responded "We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden: But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die." She was right that she was not to eat it - but where did she get the idea that she was not to touch it either?

The simplest explanation I can see is that Adam was told not to eat the fruit, then along came Eve. He knew he was responsible for her, cared about her very deeply, and wanted to make sure that she didn't die. So he told her not to even touch it, and did so in such a way that he either directly stated "God said don't even touch it", or unintentionally gave her the impression that God had said so (e.g. "God said don't eat it, don't even touch it", with the second instruction being from him but not clearly).

And that's completely reasonable and understandable. Who wouldn't try to add an even greater hedge of protection around the only woman in the world? It's a completely understandable action. But it meant that when she DID touch it anyway, and didn't die, she now probably thought eating it would be ok too and Adam must have been wrong about what God said.

The point for this discussion though is that Eve had it wrong. She did not repeat God's instruction clearly. Therefore, she most likely did not hear it directly, but heard it second-hand, through Adam. The addition of "do not touch" bears strong marks of the loving care of a husband relaying an instruction while adding an extra hedge of caution around it.
.
It all fits together completely clearly if Adam was Eve's head from the beginning.
I might add that we can be guilty of the same thing with our wives or children. There was nothing wrong with Adam adding extra command. as head he had every right to. and she would be accountable to honor his word. The problem comes when we do not distinguish between our words and God's. We should be careful to tell those under our authority God said __________ and I say____________ those under authority are to obey either way but our distinction keeps the proper authority in proper perspective, for example: how many have taught that drinking is a sin when the scripture says drunkenness is the sin. Does a husband or father have the authority to have an no drinking house? YES! but to keep the right understanding between his word and God's word is also right.
 
That's the point. Somewhere Eve got confused, because when the serpent tempted her, she responded "We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden: But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die." She was right that she was not to eat it - but where did she get the idea that she was not to touch it either?

The simplest explanation I can see is that Adam was told not to eat the fruit, then along came Eve. He knew he was responsible for her, cared about her very deeply, and wanted to make sure that she didn't die. So he told her not to even touch it, and did so in such a way that he either directly stated "God said don't even touch it", or unintentionally gave her the impression that God had said so (e.g. "God said don't eat it, don't even touch it", with the second instruction being from him but not clearly).

And that's completely reasonable and understandable. Who wouldn't try to add an even greater hedge of protection around the only woman in the world? It's a completely understandable action. But it meant that when she DID touch it anyway, and didn't die, she now probably thought eating it would be ok too and Adam must have been wrong about what God said.

The point for this discussion though is that Eve had it wrong. She did not repeat God's instruction clearly. Therefore, she most likely did not hear it directly, but heard it second-hand, through Adam. The addition of "do not touch" bears strong marks of the loving care of a husband relaying an instruction while adding an extra hedge of caution around it.

It all fits together completely clearly if Adam was Eve's head from the beginning.

Exactly the problem with Rabbinic Judaism and their many 'fences' around the Torah... Which begs the question, should we add fences? Or, if we do, then we must be abundantly clear that it is OUR rule and not GOD's... but then that opens the can of worms about adding to/taking away from, ala Deuteronomy 12:30ish...
 
Which begs the question, should we add fences?

I think yes. I actually added fences for myself. I am glad the alcohol example was brought up. I personally have never drank alcohol. Not one drop. Other than within medicine such as cough syrup...

I was raised in a church that taught it to be a sin, but shortly after high-school I realized that it was nowhere in the Bible and there were to many contradictions in scripture if it was a sin. So at that point I made the personal choice to never drink alcohol. And also to not allow anyone under my authority to drink alcohol either. I do believe that my family has been better off because of it. My grandfather was a drunk for several years when my mother was growing up. My wife had a drinking problem prior to us getting married. That fence being more strict in my home is a hedge against falling into the sin of drunkenness.
I teach that to my wife and children and they all know why. It is not adding to scripture. It is me using my God given authority to protect my household.

That being said I definitely see parallels to the monogamy only teaching of most churches and I began questioning that at about the same time. Although I didn't dig in enough back then to arrive at the opinion that I have now... Oh how I wish I had...
 
That's the point. Somewhere Eve got confused, because when the serpent tempted her, she responded "We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden: But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die." She was right that she was not to eat it - but where did she get the idea that she was not to touch it either?

The simplest explanation I can see is that Adam was told not to eat the fruit, then along came Eve. He knew he was responsible for her, cared about her very deeply, and wanted to make sure that she didn't die. So he told her not to even touch it, and did so in such a way that he either directly stated "God said don't even touch it", or unintentionally gave her the impression that God had said so (e.g. "God said don't eat it, don't even touch it", with the second instruction being from him but not clearly).

And that's completely reasonable and understandable. Who wouldn't try to add an even greater hedge of protection around the only woman in the world? It's a completely understandable action. But it meant that when she DID touch it anyway, and didn't die, she now probably thought eating it would be ok too and Adam must have been wrong about what God said.

The point for this discussion though is that Eve had it wrong. She did not repeat God's instruction clearly. Therefore, she most likely did not hear it directly, but heard it second-hand, through Adam. The addition of "do not touch" bears strong marks of the loving care of a husband relaying an instruction while adding an extra hedge of caution around it.

It all fits together completely clearly if Adam was Eve's head from the beginning.

I believe that more than enough evidence throughout Scripture exists to clearly indicate that husbands are to be the heads of their wives, but in this instance, Samuel, you're using the logical fallacy of petitio principii to force meaning into what you've just written. I'm going to make comments and ask questions to demonstrate this.

Was everything that ever happened during the events described throughout Scripture written down as part of Scripture? In other words, is it a comprehensive record of everything that occurred within the context of the events mentioned? More specifically, was every word God ever spoke to humans written down in Scripture? In other words, does Scripture document every instance of God speaking to humans? Was every conversation between God and Adam recorded, word for word? No.

If not, can we assume that, just because something isn't included in Scripture that it didn't happen?


We cannot.

On the other hand, just because something might have happened, does that necessarily mean it did happen if it isn't included in Scripture? What if it's the most likely thing to have happened? Does that mean that it had to have happened?

It does not. We can not consider ourselves on a firm foundation when we start basing our conclusions on more-likely-than-not.

We therefore cannot assume that the more comprehensive report Eve gave to the serpent in Gen. 3:3 was not repeated verbatim from what Yahweh Elohim told Adam when Eve was still part of Adam. We do not have records of either all of the conversations between God and Adam or all of the the conversations between Adam and Eve. We have no authority to make up what happened between the lines.

We furthermore cannot assume that Adam would have been operating from an intention to add any extra protection by purposefully exaggerating the prohibition -- even if we were to have evidence (which we don't) that Adam misrepresented an earlier conversation with God when relaying it to Eve; he could have just been lying, but we wouldn't know, because Scripture doesn't inform us. This is where your explanation initiates its petitio principii (also known as begging the question). One cannot prove that something happened just based on one's wishful thinking that it needed to have happened that way in order to bolster a point of view one wants to prove but for which one has no evidence. The circular logic is thus as follows: husbands were always the head; therefore, Adam must have exaggerated what God told him when he passed it along to Eve; Adam must have done this because he felt like he needed to protect Eve; therefore husbands were always the head; therefore, Adam must have exaggerated . . . etc., etc. -- but all we have evidence for is that Eve was originally part of Adam and that Eve asserted to the serpent that God said that they were prohibited from even touching the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.

We don't know that Eve retained any memory from her time as Adam, but that she remembered the conversation from that time is a more direct logical deduction (as also would be God having repeated the instructions to Eve after he formed her from the female angular organs originally in Adam) than working backwards from the proof to take the potentially reasonable conjecture of Adam relaying false information to indicate that it proves something that preceded it.

We have a finite amount of evidence presented to us in Scripture. Each hypothetical event or added meaning creates conjecture, all of which might be true, but it's not Scripture. It's just extra-biblical interpretation that doesn't even qualify as taking context or historical use of idiomatic expressions into account.

My conclusion is that we are on much more solid footing when we assume that there is just the perfect amount of information included in Scripture. I base this on my belief in a Sovereign God who could not be guilty either of over-communicating or failing to provide enough information. If Eve had not communicated a report from Adam correctly or if Adam had embellished Yahweh's original instruction, and if either had been compounded by being a message meant to convey something to us, Yahweh would have included that information in Scripture.
 
I agree we don't have all the details written down. So:
We don't know that Eve retained any memory from her time as Adam, but that she remembered the conversation from that time is a more direct logical deduction (as also would be God having repeated the instructions to Eve after he formed her from the female angular organs originally in Adam) than working backwards from the proof to take the potentially reasonable conjecture of Adam relaying false information to indicate that it proves something that preceded it.
The idea that Eve retained memory from her time as part of Adam is an idea that, as far as I can see, you've invented yourself with no scriptural statement on it, in order to fill in the blanks in a way that you personally feel sounds more reasonable.

I recognise we don't have all the details - nevertheless I am extremely careful not to invent any additional details if at all possible, and stick solely to what is written down, because I am well aware that anything I invent has a very slim chance of being right. Yes, God could well have said more to Adam, and even directly to Eve, but we don't know this. What we do know is:
1) God made Adam (2:7)
2) God told Adam "you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil" (2:17)
3) God made Eve (2:22)
4) Eve said "But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die" (3:3)

Now it is possible that God did say "neither shall ye touch it". But to assume that is to add to scripture, because we are not told that He said that. However if we assume "Eve was wrong", then we are not adding anything to scripture.

My explanation for why Eve was wrong is then slightly speculative, as it isn't all directly stated in the text, but it is what I see as the most likely explanation based on the evidence we see, including the order of the text, and without putting words in the mouth of God. Maybe it's wrong. But my point was not to say that I'm 100% correct, but rather to counter a previous statement of your own:
Or, perhaps, it's even more accurate to understand that Adam didn't have to tell Eve, because Eve was Adam when Adam was given the instruction -- as Eve was still part of Adam at that point in the narrative:
My point is that this statement is speculative, because the text itself does not indicate that Eve heard the original instruction from God. On the contrary, there are indications in the text that suggest that she did not. Whether or not my particular explanation is exactly correct is beside the point.

The point is that it is not "even more accurate to understand that Adam didn't have to tell Eve", because that is an inference based on extrabiblical reasoning and read into the text, which itself does not indicate anything of the sort.
 
Why couldn't Eve, being a human and having a mind, reasoned it in her own. Maybe that was her interpretation of the law? Maybe the whole episode was a way that God was using to show that if we follow our own desires and carnal mind we always see the things of God the wrong way. Maybe it was just a way for God to show that the female spirit needs the male spirit and that the male spirit needs the female spirit to truly see God? This whole thing was arranged BY God so that we could have a chance to learn to love Him.
 
I find it interesting that a curse that is directly pointed at Adam is assumed to be for everyone else forever.

Death is still with us; and will be until the end of Earth and the judgement.

Whether it is semantically correct or not to use the word “rule” in regards to how one leads his wife(s) and children, the lingering taste of bile in my mouth comes from men who claim the “right to rule” and only give lip service to being in submission themselves to Christ.

And yet Peter saw fit to council wives to submit to the rule of husbands who are not in submission to Christ. That it was so good to do so, it could inspire their conversion!

have no claim on authority from Him.

So do non-Christian's have no authority in their marriages? Someone will rule in a marriage, either it will be the wife or it will be the husband. Why should a wife have that rule? Everything in scripture screams against it.

The rulers have authority from God and we are to obey them, even when they are not Christian. We see the same thing in 1 Peter 3 with marriage. Authority is marriage is a function of the created order, regardless of one's salvation status.
 
And yet Peter saw fit to council wives to submit to the rule of husbands who are not in submission to Christ. That it was so good to do so, it could inspire their conversion!



So do non-Christian's have no authority in their marriages? Someone will rule in a marriage, either it will be the wife or it will be the husband. Why should a wife have that rule? Everything in scripture screams against it.

The rulers have authority from God and we are to obey them, even when they are not Christian. We see the same thing in 1 Peter 3 with marriage. Authority is marriage is a function of the created order, regardless of one's salvation status.

1 Peter 2 is another great passage about submitting to various governing bodies for the promotion of the Gospel and follows that with the “likewise, wives be in subjection to your husbands” of 1 Peter 3 that you quote above.

And yet this is the same man that utilized submission to God to trump submission to secular authority, the same authority he recommends wives to be in subjection to their husband in a likewise manner.

Can a woman choose to remain with and be submissive to an unGodly authority? Sure, just as we may with an unGodly government. Does that mean that we are obligated to? Not hardly.

It’s the difference between should and must. Refusing to acknowledge the difference inherently reveals an ulterior agenda that is contrary to truth.

If it could be proven that God ever commands or instructs someone to do anything that is evil, you might be able to make the case that a husbands authority is supreme to Gods regardless of salvation. I’m not aware of anything like that.
 
My conclusion is that we are on much more solid footing when we assume that there is just the perfect amount of information included in Scripture. I base this on my belief in a Sovereign God who could not be guilty either of over-communicating or failing to provide enough information. If Eve had not communicated a report from Adam correctly or if Adam had embellished Yahweh's original instruction, and if either had been compounded by being a message meant to convey something to us, Yahweh would have included that information in Scripture.
While I frequently find myself nodding in agreement with Brother Martin this time I was shouting to the heavens. If I ever get a tattoo it might be this quote.
 
1 Peter 2 is another great passage about submitting to various governing bodies for the promotion of the Gospel and follows that with the “likewise, wives be in subjection to your husbands” of 1 Peter 3 that you quote above.

And yet this is the same man that utilized submission to God to trump submission to secular authority, the same authority he recommends wives to be in subjection to their husband in a likewise manner.

Can a woman choose to remain with and be submissive to an unGodly authority? Sure, just as we may with an unGodly government. Does that mean that we are obligated to? Not hardly.

It’s the difference between should and must. Refusing to acknowledge the difference inherently reveals an ulterior agenda that is contrary to truth.

If it could be proven that God ever commands or instructs someone to do anything that is evil, you might be able to make the case that a husbands authority is supreme to Gods regardless of salvation. I’m not aware of anything like that.
So be in subjection unless you don't want to?
 
If it could be proven that God ever commands or instructs someone to do anything that is evil, you might be able to make the case that a husbands authority is supreme to Gods regardless of salvation. I’m not aware of anything like that.

There is a world of difference between 'don't obey evil commands' and 'not being under their authority'. You're playing bait and switch here.

Can a woman choose to remain with and be submissive to an unGodly authority? Sure, just as we may with an unGodly government. Does that mean that we are obligated to? Not hardly.

It’s the difference between should and must. Refusing to acknowledge the difference inherently reveals an ulterior agenda that is contrary to truth.

Sorry, I'm not going to justify women destroying their families just because they feel he's not Godly enough. You're using human logic to directly contradict a multitude of scriptures.

But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband.

And since you seem to want to play word games, 'should' in that is also translated 'must' and literally in the Greek is 'commanded not to leave'.

There is no indication at all in 1 Peter 3 that it is merely an option women may exercise, to be in subjection to unGodly husbands. Eph 6:1-5 also backs up this idea that we be in submission to those authorities in our lives, whether they are Christian or not. No "if you want to"s there.
 
All authority is deligated. Ultimately from God. I am on board with "don't obey commands to sin..." But that does not release a person from the obligation to submit to whatever authority is in place. And a wife better be absolutely sure that her husband's instructions are in fact sinful before she decides to disobey. Because if she is wrong then she is in direct violation of the clear commands of scripture. And that is not something she should take lightly.
 
@rockfox

But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband.
And since you seem to want to play word games, 'should' in that is also translated 'must' and literally in the Greek is 'commanded not to leave'.

As best I can tell, the passage quoted by Paul as a commandment of the Lord originates in Mark 10:12

And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery

Option 1. Paul misquoted the passage for whatever reason, no doubt innocently, but still misquoted
Option 2. There was another instance where Christ dealt with this issue, and Paul is quoting that passage . . . . That’s nonexistent for some unexplainable reason.
Option 3. Mark for some reason is missing the part that Paul quotes commanding her not to leave her husband.
Option 4. A woman may legitimately decide to leave her husband, with certain restrictions

Annnnnnd . . . . . This is why all scripture must be used instead of cherry picking. It’s a werrrry werrrry swippery swope!

I’ll ask you the same thing I asked Zec,

Are you saying that we should be in subjection to laws or government that are anti God?

Are you saying that we should remain at a workplace that is attempting to force us to do whatever against God’s will?
 
Eph 6:1-5 also backs up this idea that we be in submission to those authorities in our lives, whether they are Christian or not. No "if you want to"s there

First, no mention of wives there
Secondly, the purpose of all of it is stated in the following verse 6. ”doing the will of God from the heart;”

At what point is God’s will for one of His children to do something evil? Chapter and verse please.
 
I think I would probably usually bow out instead of continuing along in this debate, because it qualifies somewhat for the angels-dancing-on-the-head-of-a-pin category, but here's why I'm not going to disappear: because, even though we're niggling over gnats -- and this was something I didn't originally recognize and thus made a smart-ass comment I've since deleted -- ya'll seem to be asserting that Eve's somewhat expanded statement about the prohibition around the FTKGE is somehow an after-the-fact proof of husbands ruling over wives from prior to The Fall. [My mind is reeling just thinking about this, because I suppose the camp that thinks that two phrases not being identical is justification for wife-ruling is probably further divided into three sub-camps: one that believes wife-ruling began before Creation because it was always God's intention; one that believes wife-ruling began at the moment God created Adam; and one that believes wife-ruling began at the moment God formed Eve out of Adam's angulars.]

Here goes:

We don't know that Eve retained any memory from her time as Adam, but that she remembered the conversation from that time is a more direct logical deduction (as also would be God having repeated the instructions to Eve after he formed her from the female angular organs originally in Adam) than working backwards from the proof to take the potentially reasonable conjecture of Adam relaying false information to indicate that it proves something that preceded it.

The idea that Eve retained memory from her time as part of Adam is an idea that, as far as I can see, you've invented yourself with no scriptural statement on it, in order to fill in the blanks in a way that you personally feel sounds more reasonable.

So far so good . . .

But my point was not to say that I'm 100% correct, but rather to counter a previous statement of your own:

Or, perhaps, it's even more accurate to understand that Adam didn't have to tell Eve, because Eve was Adam when Adam was given the instruction -- as Eve was still part of Adam at that point in the narrative:

. . . but you've done a bait and switch. First you accurately label as speculation my statement [above] that was part of asserting that (a) Eve still having memories is more directly logically deductive than is (b) using Eve's having stated an extra phrase to attempt to prove the existence of wife-ruling prior to The Fall. Then, second, you assert that your point was to counter a previous statement I'd made about how Eve was Adam when Adam was given the FTKGE instruction(s), but your entire subsequent argument does nothing to counter that Eve was previously part of Adam; instead, you return to debating against my admitted speculation about Eve having memory from when she was Adam. Once you did that, you weren't arguing with me or refuting me; instead you were debating the Straw Keith.

Here are all the posts where I asserted scriptural support references for assuming that Eve had memories from back when she was still Adam:

.............sigh.............
; and

.............Yawn.............

And here's what I actually did say about my acknowledged speculation about Eve having memories from back when she was just an itch in Adam's crotch:

We don't know that Eve retained any memory from her time as Adam, but [the notion] that she remembered the conversation from that time is a more direct logical deduction (as also would be God having repeated the instructions to Eve after he formed her from the female angular organs originally in Adam) than working backwards from the proof to take the potentially reasonable conjecture of Adam relaying false information to indicate that it proves something that preceded it.

Next is what I agree with in your most recent post:

I agree we don't have all the details written down. So:

The idea that Eve retained memory from her time as part of Adam is an idea that, as far as I can see, you've invented yourself with no scriptural statement on it, in order to fill in the blanks in a way that you personally feel sounds more reasonable.

I recognise we don't have all the details <snip>
Yes, God could well have said more to Adam, and even directly to Eve, but we don't know this. What we do know is:
1) God made Adam (2:7)
2) God told Adam "you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil" (2:17)
3) God made Eve (2:22)
4) Eve said "But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die" (3:3)

Now it is possible that God did say "neither shall ye touch it". But to assume that is to add to scripture, because we are not told that He said that. <snip>

My explanation for why Eve was wrong is then slightly speculative, as it isn't all directly stated in the text, <snip>

<snip>

<snip>Maybe it's wrong.

The point is that it is not "even more accurate to understand that Adam didn't have to tell Eve", because that is an inference based on extrabiblical reasoning and read into the text, which itself does not indicate anything of the sort.

We agree that all details are not included in Scripture; that I invented the possibility of Eve having memories from back during her Adam days; that I invented that possibility because I believe it is more reasonable; that we don't know if God said more to Adam or Eve; that God made Adam; that God gave Adam FTKGE instructions; that God made Eve [let's just stipulate here that God made everything]; and that Eve reported to the serpent FTKGE instructions slightly expanded beyond what we know for a fact God gave Adam.

We are also in partial agreement that it is not "even more accurate to understand that Adam didn't have to tell Eve, because that is an inference based on extrabiblical reasoning and read into the text, which itself does not indicate anything of the sort." We agree on that last one, because I am at fault for faulty phrasing. What I meant to convey should have been "even more reasonable to speculate" instead of "even more accurate to understand;" I should have proofread that better. Had I written, "Or, perhaps, it's even more reasonable to speculate that Adam didn't have to tell Eve," I would instead continue to stand by it 100%. Or at least 90%, because, given that we're both speculating, just about anything we conjectured that didn't contradict actual scripture would be within the realm of possibility. After all, we are talking about our All-Powerful Heavenly Father here, right?

But it remains important to keep in mind that I am not the only one between us who is speculating.

We also do not agree on the following:

nevertheless I am extremely careful not to invent any additional details if at all possible, and stick solely to what is written down, because I am well aware that anything I invent has a very slim chance of being right. However if we assume "Eve was wrong", then we are not adding anything to scripture.

My explanation for why Eve was wrong is then slightly speculative, as it isn't all directly stated in the text, but it is what I see as the most likely explanation based on the evidence we see, including the order of the text, and without putting words in the mouth of God.
  • This is conjecture on my part, but am I correct in assuming that you might also disagree with stating that you are "extremely careful not to invent any additional details if at all possible, and stick solely to what is written down, because [you're] well aware what what [you] invent has a very slim chance of being right"? (a) I've already acknowledged that I speculated about the possibility of Eve having memories from when she was part of Adam, but aren't you also inventing details in equal measure by asserting that God didn't tell Adam not to touch the fruit or that God didn't tell Eve not to eat and/or touch the fruit just because it doesn't state either one? Aren't you also giving yourself latitude to work around the stricture to "stick solely to what is written down?" On the other hand (b) I cannot agree with your assertion that anything you would invent would have a very slim chance of being right, because I've already grown to have more faith in your reasoning abilities than that; the fact that we're disagreeing about wife-ruling or the ever-presence of husband headship doesn't put a dent in my respect for your general authoritativeness.
  • I don't agree, though, with your liberal use of the word 'wrong,' as it either definitionally shifts in its usage or I would wholeheartedly disagree with you. If, by 'wrong,' you mean that Eve made the 'wrong' (i.e., immorally disobedient) choice when she ate of the FTKGE or encouraged Adam to do so as well, I thoroughly agree with you, but if, by 'wrong,' you mean that Eve said the 'wrong' (i.e., factually incorrect) thing when she talked about God saying that He'd prohibited touching the FTKGE, then you are indeed adding to Scripture. We simply do not know whether God did or did not speak to Eve (or even Adam) about touching or not touching the FTKGE.
  • If you're asserting that your speculation is more slight than my speculation, I'd also disagree with that.
I would also disagree with what I infer as your assertion that you've included a dispositive timeline to bolster your premise.

God could well have said more to Adam, and even directly to Eve, but we don't know this. What we do know is:
1) God made Adam (2:7)
2) God told Adam "you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil" (2:17)
3) God made Eve (2:22)
4) Eve said "But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die" (3:3)

In the context of a forum thread in which the universal-in-time headship of husbands over wives (or males over females) is being asserted -- and more especially in such a discussion in which husbands ruling over their wives is being asserted -- I believe you've left out some salient and highly relevant verses in between 2:7 and 3:3, as well as one after 3:5 when the serpent made the eat-the-fruit pitch (all CVOT):

Gen. 2:15: Then Yahweh Elohim took the human and settled him in the garden of Eden to serve it and to keep it.

No mention of rule here.

Gen. 2:18: And Yahweh Elohim said: It is not good for the human to be alone by himself. I shall make for him a helper as his complement.

His complement, not his supervisee. His complement. The yang for his yin. This doesn't disprove headship, but it certainly provides no support for a ruler/rulee relationship.

Gen. 2:19,20: Yahweh Elohim had formed from the ground every animal of the field and every flyer of the heavens; and He brought each one to the human to see what he would call it. And whatever the human would call it, each living soul, that was its name. So the human was calling the names of every domestic beast, of every flyer of the heavens and of every animal of the field; yet for the human no helper was available as his complement.

Gen. 2:23: The human said, This time, it is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh. This shall be called woman, for this was taken from her man.

Gen. 2:24: Therefore a man shall forsake his father and his mother; he will cling to his wife, and both of them will be one flesh.

One flesh. Not a foot and a footstool. Not a captain and his ship. One flesh. Other human beings aren't even in the picture yet to provide anyone who would have a mother and a father, and yet Divine Word says that a man shall forsake his parents, cling to his wife, and both of them will be one flesh. We do tend to understand this to refer to "becoming one flesh;" i.e., in a sexual sense. But we have a message here that says that the husband will cling, and that both of them will be one flesh. Tell me this doesn't sound like they're partners.

And, given that the context of this discussion is whether husbands were created by Yahweh to rule their wives, Gen. 3:6 begs to be included:

Then the woman saw that the tree was good for food, that it brought a yearning to the eyes and that the tree was desirable for gaining insight. So she took of its fruit and ate. She also gave some to her husband with her, and he ate.

I invite you to be very careful not to add anything to this scripture, not even to add our awareness that Eve and Adam will be cursed by God for this disobedience. It is quite popular (especially, not coincidentally, among men) to assume that what occurred with the eating of the FTKGE was an abandonment on Adam's part of his responsibility to head, lead or rule Eve. What does one base that assumption on, though? I assert that it's less reasonable to assume that Adam already had a significant form of headship over Eve than it is to infer from Gen. 3:6 that there was nothing at all unnatural about Eve having just as much right as Adam to take the lead, because taking the lead is exactly what she did. As others have already pointed out, Adam ("her husband ")was clearly right there ("with her") while Eve conversed with the serpent, while Eve "saw that the tree was good for food" and that it "was desirable for gaining insight," and while Eve took and ate the FTKGE (either that or Adam ate along with her). In Gen. 3:17, God tells Adam that he's cursed because "you hearkened to your wife's voice and ate from the only tree that I instructed you" not to eat. God says the curse was for Adam's disobedience, not for his failure to lead or rule.

I do apologize for my inartful use of "acceptable to understand" when I should have written "reasonable to speculate." If that was the sole inspiration for you taking what I know to be your valuable time, Samuel, to wrestle with me about these concepts, though, I am not entirely sorry that I made that error, because wrangling with these concepts has been very productive for me. My thoughts on the subject were far less formed when I first dropped in on this thread than they have become at this point. I find I'm increasingly persuaded that the headship itself began with the curse, and I also find that I remain unconvinced that we husbands have ever been tangibly admonished to rule over our wives -- and no matter what interpretation or lack of interpretation we put on Eve having said the words, "and you shall not touch it," to the serpent, it proves nothing either way about leadership or disobedience. Eating the fruit was Eve's disobedience of Yahweh, not of Adam.
 
Last edited:
Back
Top