Anyone have a chance to go through this website? Interesting stuff, I think. Wondering what others thought, if they did.
I spent quite a bit of time a while back looking around Stan's fecpp/HEM pages, and I think he has quite a bit of solid material, but there are certain topic areas of his writings that I find rather concerning.
http://www.nccg.org/AposInt13.html
"The biblical teaching is explicit: there is to be no kind of sexual contact whatsoever, and that includes petting and kissing, until a couple are married. .. Anything that might be remotely construed as sexual belongs solely to the marriage covenant."
Where is this explicit teaching?
"To be entitled to have sex with another person means to enter into a life-long commitment in front of two or more witnesses. This is how Elohim (God) defines legal sex."
Where is this legal definition saying that commitment is required, or even that commitment requires two+ witnesses?
"Q. ...."
"A. ...."
"Q. There is no revelation on that, is there?"
"A. Does there need to be? Anyone who is walking in the Ruach (Spirit) will be automatically repelled by such a thought."
I find that statement, or rather the mindset, to be very concerning. Do not monogamy-onlyists say the same thing about polygyny?
https://www.survivalistboards.com/showthread.php?p=17966697#post17966697
He sees masturbation as a sin, even "auto-homosexuality".
https://www.nccg.org/fecpp/CPM108-Masturbation.html
He specifically claims that this knowledge ("auto-homosexuality") was revealed to him in a dream.
This next page was not written by Stan, but he linked to it as worthy reading material.
https://www.nccg.org/015.html
Notice the words which were added to the end of Mat 5:28.
In his bi-women section (
http://www.nccg.org/fecpp/biwomen-index.html), he uses Romans 1:26-28 (
http://www.nccg.org/fecpp/CPM150-Bisexuality.html) to argue against female bi/homo-sexuality. He says "that sole passage of scripture which addresses same-sex attraction and activity for both men and women." Rom 1:26-28 is a *description* of past events, not a *prescription* of a new precept. Whatever they did, it was wrong before Paul spoke. How then can this be said to be where we learn a precept? Here (
http://www.nccg.org/fecpp/CPMFAQ025-Bi.html) he says "The cure for lesbianism and bisexuality is: (a) Recognition that its origin is demonic; (b) ...". What?! How can this be, seeing that lesbianism and (female) bisexuality are not prohibited?
I think Stan doesn't have a clear understanding of what sin is, or how it's defined, and therefore ends up calling something sin based on his own [mis]understandings and personal biases; possibly having looked at some doubtful passages where he interpreted meanings based on what he expected to see (confirmation bias).
I think we can gather some understanding of what sin is, and what it is not....
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1Jo 3:4),
"where no law is, there is no transgression." (Rom 4:15),
"sin is not imputed when there is no law." (Rom 5:13),
And as for personally knowing something is a sin, apart from there being a specific, citable law against it, I think we have...
"I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet." (Rom 7:7),
"by the law is the knowledge of sin." (Rom 3:20).
And for what one does know to be right/wrong, apart from there being a law...
"Therefore to him that knoweth to do good, and doeth it not, to him it is sin." (Jas 4:17).
With all that in mind, I read what he writes with degree of skepticism.