Cow fam said:
I am still baffled by how the question of divorce is supposed to be equivalent to polygamy. I understand that from the beginning it was not intended for man to divorce his wife, that Adam only had one wife, but I fail to see how that has anything whatsoever to do with polygyny.
I don't think the monogamist argument around Matthew 19:9 is that polygamy is equivalent to divorce. I'll try and think like a monogamist for a minute. Let's have a look at the verse.
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Monogamist thinking
This verse says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery. Now adultery is generally taken as a married woman having sex with a man who is not her husband, and that fits the usage of the word virtually everywhere. But here Jesus says that the man is committing adultery by marrying another woman. He isn't sleeping with someone else's wife, yet he is committing adultery. What is he doing that is called adultery?
The simplest reading is that it is the act of "marrying another" that is called adultery. The man must be supposed to be married to the wife he has put away unjustly, and is cheating with her by taking this other wife. Therefore, having an additional wife must be adultery. Therefore polygyny is wrong.
Any disagreement with the Old Testament must be because Jesus is making the law tougher. Just as he said if you hate your brother you have committed murder, if you look at a woman lustfully you have committed adultery, here he is tightening up the law and saying if you have a second wife, even if you have divorced the first, you commit adultery.
Polygamist thinking
To be honest, I think this sounds very logical at first glance. It however has two major problems when you consider it more deeply:
1) It contradicts the rest of scripture on the matter. Now Jesus could have contradicted the rest of scripture and introduced a new law here, but this wasn't what he tended to do. He usually just explained the old laws with a different emphasis. For instance, the Old Testament also essentially says it is a sin to look on a married woman with lust (tenth commandment), Jesus explained it slightly differently. Did Jesus introduce any teachings that were tougher than Moses' laws on any other issue?
2) It is very shaky to conclude a whole new change in theology based on logical reasoning from a single proof-text that isn't even about the topic. This is like doing a scientific experiment and finding the crop yields when you use 10, 20 and 30 kg/ha of a fertiliser, drawing a line through the points and presuming you can predict a massive yield when you apply 500 kg/ha. You actually have no idea, because it is outside the known range. That amount of fertiliser might be beneficial, or it might actually kill the crop and give you no yield, you cannot tell from the known range of data you have. The known range of Jesus' opinion here is "divorce", "polygamy" is something entirely different which we should be very cautious drawing conclusions on from this passage.
So this isn't a good way to understand the passage. But it does say that a man is committing "adultery" in this situation. How is he committing adultery, if not by taking a second wife?
Adultery is most fundamentally something that breaks the marriage bond. A woman who is unfaithful breaks her bond to her husband by stepping outside his authority and going to a different man. This is an act of rebellion against his headship. It is equated with idolatry in many places, because idolatry is an act of rebellion against God.
Now in this situation, if the woman has already been unfaithful, the husband is justified in divorcing her. She has already broken the marriage bond herself through her adultery, the husband is simply following through with what she has started by sending her away. The wife is guilty of adultery.
If however the wife is faithful, and her husband sends her away, it is the husband who has broken the marriage bond. This breach of the marriage must here be also termed adultery by Jesus. So it is the husband who is guilty of adultery.
This way of looking at the passage is entirely consistent with the rest of the Bible's teachings on marriage. It may have one small issue however. Jesus says that the man commits adultery by putting away one wife AND taking another. So what does taking another wife have to do with it, if simply putting away the first unjustly is adultery? Maybe taking another wife as her replacement shows his full rejection of her and confirms his heart as adulterous? I am not sure about this.
Does that help anyone understand what the issue is with Jesus' teachings on divorce, and how they are theoretically linked to polygamy?