RemnantResilience
Member
Referencing the underlined, including the previous 2 verses for context, but not ignoring the previous chapter in its entirety. Something that's been bouncing around in my head the last month or so is what exactly are "Conjugal Rights" and how does that tie into the status of the women in Isaiah 4:1?
"Thy men shall fall by the sword, and thy mighty in the war. And her gates shall lament and mourn; and she being desolate shall sit upon the ground. And in that day seven women shall take hold of one man, saying, We will eat our own bread, and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name, to take away our reproach." - Isaiah 3:25-4:1
This declaration obviously being a reference to "If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish." -Exodus 21:10.
The established setting being that men have become scarce and these women have entered into a state of reproach. Some would be widows or divorcees, others never married (Virgins, Harlots, and Prostitutes), both potentially childless, but perhaps not all. However, any children now falling into the category of orphan or bastard. The women are still able to provide for their own basic needs, so what exactly is it they are missing that they are willing to declare to the remaining men the waiving of some of their marital rights? The only thing not waived being the conjugal rights, but what exactly are those? Sex, Children, Inheritance, Covering? Considering the desire of the women of Isaiah 4:1, what is the definition of conjugal rights? And when has one fulfilled them?
Sex? - Looking at the majority of relational desires for women it is children, I don't recall sex being an expressed desire except for to produce children. With the exception of harlotry and adultery, which still may just be the desire of children from other men (hypergamy). Considering the lack of men to justify the declaration, it would be safe to assume they are not providing for themselves through prostitution or harlotry at this point. Its possible the women would be burning with unfulfilled passion. However, sex doesn't quite fulfill the entirety of the definition of their request.
Heirs/Children? - We do see reproach referenced as bareness in other places in the bible, do we then assume that the women mentioned are all childless or barren? Or perhaps without male child? What about those with children? I think this also does not fulfill the request fully.
Covering/Stability? - The women are obviously providing for themselves but, still desire to be called by the mans name. Does this imply a desire of status, belonging, or guidance? This being something only the man can provide. The previous two terms can technically fall under this term.
So my next question is, in waiving these requirements, are these women willfully lowering themselves to a concubine status out of desperation? Exodus 21:10 simply refers to another, and does not cite either a Pilgesh or Ishah. Isaiah 4:1 does refer to the women as Ishah however, we know these women are not married because their expressed desire is to join themselves to a man, so here it can only represent a woman in general. Thoughts?
"Thy men shall fall by the sword, and thy mighty in the war. And her gates shall lament and mourn; and she being desolate shall sit upon the ground. And in that day seven women shall take hold of one man, saying, We will eat our own bread, and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name, to take away our reproach." - Isaiah 3:25-4:1
This declaration obviously being a reference to "If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish." -Exodus 21:10.
The established setting being that men have become scarce and these women have entered into a state of reproach. Some would be widows or divorcees, others never married (Virgins, Harlots, and Prostitutes), both potentially childless, but perhaps not all. However, any children now falling into the category of orphan or bastard. The women are still able to provide for their own basic needs, so what exactly is it they are missing that they are willing to declare to the remaining men the waiving of some of their marital rights? The only thing not waived being the conjugal rights, but what exactly are those? Sex, Children, Inheritance, Covering? Considering the desire of the women of Isaiah 4:1, what is the definition of conjugal rights? And when has one fulfilled them?
Sex? - Looking at the majority of relational desires for women it is children, I don't recall sex being an expressed desire except for to produce children. With the exception of harlotry and adultery, which still may just be the desire of children from other men (hypergamy). Considering the lack of men to justify the declaration, it would be safe to assume they are not providing for themselves through prostitution or harlotry at this point. Its possible the women would be burning with unfulfilled passion. However, sex doesn't quite fulfill the entirety of the definition of their request.
Heirs/Children? - We do see reproach referenced as bareness in other places in the bible, do we then assume that the women mentioned are all childless or barren? Or perhaps without male child? What about those with children? I think this also does not fulfill the request fully.
Covering/Stability? - The women are obviously providing for themselves but, still desire to be called by the mans name. Does this imply a desire of status, belonging, or guidance? This being something only the man can provide. The previous two terms can technically fall under this term.
So my next question is, in waiving these requirements, are these women willfully lowering themselves to a concubine status out of desperation? Exodus 21:10 simply refers to another, and does not cite either a Pilgesh or Ishah. Isaiah 4:1 does refer to the women as Ishah however, we know these women are not married because their expressed desire is to join themselves to a man, so here it can only represent a woman in general. Thoughts?
