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Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it moral?

Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

What if a woman became a husbands slave automatically when she married him?

Than being free from slavery would also mean being free from marriage because the two would go together.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

@ Tlaloc

Israel wasn’t the wife of Egypt, so we have an apples and oranges situation here, and it isn’t her dowry that is the concern. As a slave she was of value like any commodity and was not required to pony up the value she would have as a slave, why? because she was fully expected to return (be reconciled). “what I was saying is that going out entails freedom from obligation too” yes, that is what you are saying, however that is not what the scriptures are saying. It simply states that she is allowed to leave. Again, if she was allowed to divorce the words used to express divorce were readily available when that scripture was written, and in the event that she was legitimately divorcing her husband (not that it is legitimate to divorce) that is what would have been stated. Proof all the more that divorce is not condoned or sanctioned.

When Jesus stated that “Moses allowed” it He is contradicting the Pharisees statement that “Moses commanded” it. It is not condoned by God as you imply. In fact scriptures state that God hates divorce, interestingly enough God also hates sin...seems to me they are one and the same…hated and sinful.

Matthew 19:7-8 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?" He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.

Jesus was clearly making the distinction that their assumption that it was commanded and sanctioned by God was wrong and simply that Moses had allowed them to do it due to the hardness of their hearts. To emphasize His point Jesus goes on to state that since the beginning (from day one) it (divorce) was not allowed (was not sanctioned, approved or anything else of that nature). It really does not get any clearer or simpler than this.

In Jeremiah God is using terminology that the Israelites would clearly understand to help them and us understand the severity of the situation…it had become as bad as it gets. Men were divorcing their wives for any reason, and God was using it as an analogy they would understand. God makes it clear that He has not abandoned (divorced) His chosen people in the scriptures. If that were the case then the Muslims have it right when they claim that God abandoned them and they have no inheritance.

When mention is made of the woman remarrying, the statement is that if she does, not that she is allowed. People for a long time have been doing things they are not supposed to do, but that does not stop them from doing them. It is important to understand that circumstance does not create law, just as the circumstance of Adam having one wife does not constitute a law that all men can have only one wife. The passage is expressing that if a woman defiles herself her husband is not to take her back.

Corinthians and Exodus are directly related and stating the same things, not contradicting each other or talking about two different things. A woman is not allowed to leave her husband unless he is not providing for her (forcing her to obtain her own provisions), and even then she should remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband in the event that she does leave. Both verses emphasize the sanctity of marriage, the husband should not remove his provision and the woman should not leave. Unfortunately we live in a fallen world and these things happen at times so we are given instruction as to how we are to deal with them.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

Maybe we should post this topic on another section. Because the original topic was polygamy. Although granted I did bring up this topic. Still I did not expect we would discuss it so long on this section.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

I have yet to be involved in a thread that managed to stay on topic... : ) Well maybe the "Welcome I'm a newbie" threads don't get too wild. I kind of like it that way...that is what fellowship is...everyone discusses what is on their heart. Passions run high and emotions sometimes overcome logic, but usually the intent is understood. What might be difficult is for someone unfamiliar with the scriptures, or looking to research a certain topic might miss valuable information because our discussions do seem to end up going all kinds of different directions...but again, I enjoy the discussions and even have my interest piqued from time to time about things I had not previously considered
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

@ Discussing

Didn't you bring up divorce in your July 7th post devoted entirely to the topic? Alright, I'll ask Scarecrow about a moving our meta this post. :)

@ Scarecrow
You where the one that brought the Hebrew root into the conversation, if you where going to do that you could have at least done the courtesy of researching the word instead of just copy and pasting strongs definition. Yaw-tsaw entails being free from obligation to that which was left. Weather its leaving a house, a country, a job, a family, or a way of life Yaw-tsaw entails freedom from obligation from. If we are talking about Exodus then we don't see any expectation of her return either.

Now, are you saying you don't see this situation as sanctioning divorce, or you never see divorce sanctioned, because if its the later your statement is in opposition to the clearest passages of scripture and the very essence of the meaning sanction.


The synoptic Gospels are sometimes a wonderful thing for understating a situation more clearly, take Mark 10:3-5 "And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you? And they (the Pharisees) said, Moses allowed to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away. And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept."

If what you said was true Matthew would be giving the opposite story as Mark. You really should cross check some theories before posting. Really your argument is semantic nonsense, the command is that men are allowed to divorce in certain circumstances. So when they talked of the Law, they said command, when they said what the law is, they said allow.

I don't know what to say about this but Check your Work.


Umm, Israel was destroyed, scattered, kaput. The Children of Israel who where divided from them at this point, the Jews and Benjimites and probably some Levites, continue and Islam is wrong in claiming the blessing went from Issac to Ishmael, but its pretty clear the 9 (10ish) tribes where destroyed and utterly lost. Those that came back and rebuilt where Jews, those that persevered the centuries where Jews, and those that are building modern Israel are Jews. Eschatology aside, there's not a lot of wiggle room here, there are none them left.


When mention is made of the woman remarrying, the statement is that if she does, not that she is allowed.

Where is such a statement made? If you seriously juggle the word order around you could eisegate it into Corinthians, but that isn't what Corinthians actually says.

Naturally I do not agree with your paralleling Corinthians and Exodus, but I do see that you are using a consistent hermeneutic to draw the parallels and I respect that. I maintain, as I said, that Exodus is talking about a proper separation while the Corinthians passage is dealing with an improper one, probably related to something specific the Corinthians wrote Paul about and if thats given then very likely about some kind of 'corinthisizing' and thus certainly improper.

This third part is most likely at an impass as its one application vs another, but the discussion centering around the Law and the Gospels is quite promising. Anyway, good conversation so far Scarecrow.

Do you have access to the Deeper discussion (and respectful debate) area of this forum? If so one of us could create a thread there to get out of Discussing's way. If you have access that is the best place for this, otherwise probably other biblical issues?
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

Tlaloc said:
@ Discussing

Didn't you bring up divorce in your July 7th post devoted entirely to the topic? Alright, I'll ask Scarecrow about a moving our meta this post. :)
Oh I mentioned an argument people use against divorce in relation to using a similar argument against polygamy. But the main topic was whether or not polygamy is moral to initiate.

And then I talked about divorce later because someone who's first wife divorced her had some mention about that. And I was mentioning that she probably still is married to him even if she gets divorce papers.

This is still a good topic to discuss, but if someone wants to look up info about the ORIGINAL MAIN topic they might get a little confused.

Which is why I suggested we continue the post elsewhere. Which is different than disbanding the post.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

I didn't mean to disband the discussion. I only meant that I had to ask Scarecrow about moving it (which I did in the same post as I talked to you) because I would prefer to move it to the debate section so we can talk it out until we agree or agree to disagree and I don't know if Scarecrow has access to that section or not. If it wasn't for that I would have made a new topic and linked to it already, but it would not be so good for me to make a topic Scarecrow can't see...
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

Sorry Tlaloc. That was my bad. What set this off was the whole idea of morality vs. legality. As you know, I've been a strong adherant of plural marriage and thought I actually practiced it at one time while I'm not so sure I still don't. This is a horrible position to be in and I am not sure I could wish this condition on anyone. Perhaps I should not have even responded to this thread as you know how much I detest the word "polygamy" considering that the "OFFICIAL" definition includes polyandry and the mating habits of beasts and lower level animals. If the word "POLYGAMY" were actually found within the lids of the HOLY BIBLE, I would have some strength of argument to use for it or against it; but I know what it means in the dictionary and that just isn't Biblical enough for me. If you can direct me to a different thread where I can write about this, I would be much obliged. Thank you
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

@ Tlaloc

I will just leave it at this, and if you need to have the last word on the topic go ahead. Either you are right and the Bible is wrong, or you are wrong and the Bible is right. God made it very simple for us to understand. Marriage is a covenant before God between a man and a woman and has been since Adam and Eve. Covenants cannot be annulled or added to once they have been ratified.

Malachi 2:14 But you say, "Why does he not?" Because the LORD was witness between you and the wife of your youth, to whom you have been faithless, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant.

Galatians 3:15 To give a human example, brothers: even with a man-made covenant, no one annuls it or adds to it once it has been ratified.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

@ Ed
No prob, if you want to talk terms there is a great thread Doc started at http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum2/viewtopic.php?f=17&t=1667&p=15812#p15812 which is about how he doesn't particularly like the term polygamy either. For Legality vs Morality you might just have to create your own thread, as I'm not sure there is an existing topic on that.

@ Scarecrow,

Have some respect, its my exegesis vs your exegesis. My case is that you oppose correct rendering of scripture as much as your case is that I oppose it. If you don't want to crack open the book and look at the details then thats that, but you'd do well to get your attitude in check. But what good would getting the last word do me, you have not even addressed the obvious contradictions in your reasoning from last post? You ought to respect other Christians enough to take seriously what their saying even if you disagree with them.

@Discussing

Do you have any views on the social implications of allowing polygamy? Do you have any theonomic leanings? I generally think it would be good if men where obliged to take care of any woman they took, that would cut down on the premarital sex eh?
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

I thought the debate we were having was about divorce and remarriage not about the use of the word polygamy.

This topic I already started was related

Why is it adultery for a man to divorce his wife AND marry

viewtopic.php?f=27&t=1743

I will try not to post anything (starting tomorrow) until next week Friday. (So that I can study)
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

In fact scriptures state that God hates divorce, interestingly enough God also hates sin...seems to me they are one and the same…hated and sinful.

The actual Hebrew in Malachi says that He "hates the 'putting away'." The Hebrew word shalach or "put away" (send away) is NOT synonymous with what Americans call "divorce". (*)

That distinction has been the subject of much misunderstanding and false teaching.



-------------------------
* All horses are animals, but not all animals are horses.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

DiscussingTheTopic said:
3.
So the only objection left that I know of is there is some sort of secret unwritten law God has against polygamy. He allows it but secretly frowns upon it.

An example would be similar to the following claim for divorce

Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Mathew 19:8-9 NIV

The argument would go God allowed divorce but did not approve of it. The certificate of divorce was for God to make divorce harder not easier and to guarantee the wife can get a new husband because she has a certificate to certify she is not married. This argument is that God did not punish divorce in the Old Testament but still hated it, however in the new testament divorce is forbidden because God really hated divorce all along. An additional problem with that argument is that it is made clear that God hates divorce in the old testament (Malachi 2) so that is not really a "hidden" moral teaching after Malachi (although Malachi was written much later than the Torah so it could have been "hidden" until Malachi.)

I disagree with the above reasoning although I see you do as well. I mean I can see why there would be people who are hard hearted by wanting to divorce their wife, but it's not as convincing that there would be a high demand of people wanting to engage in polygamy as there would've been people wanting to divorce. My theory is that there was a high demand of divorce requests, and God compromised with the people which is why we don't hear nor read about any punishment or judgements of unrighteousness for polygamists and those who divorce their wives. This also shows that both God allowing and God approving mean that something is not a sin or at least an act that God will not punish you for which may as well not be a sin in that case.

This is one example if any that shows that God hating something or not prescribing (while also doesn't call it a sin or prescribe NOt to do it) does not mean that that hated thing is a sin. If anything God probably did not want divorce at least but still accepted it as being okay out of compromising and changing His mind such as He's done in Exodus 32. It's good that some of God's commands are negotiable and that He heeds our input sometimes in some of His decisions.


DiscussingTheTopic said:
The reason I mention this divorce example is because........

How would you answer the objection that like divorce, polygamy is also secretly immoral but is yet allowed and permitted by God

ONce God allowed divorce I don't believe it was immoral any longer. Jesus reiterating in Matthew that a believer can divorce and remarry if adultery was involved amplifies this point, in my opinion.

DiscussingTheTopic said:
In Deutoronomy 21:15 and Exodus 21:10 the word IF is used. It is not said that a man may marry more than one wife. Or that it is okay. But IF.... This could indicate that it is not approved of, but it is simply a policy for what should be done after the fact.

If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firstborn is the son of the wife he does not love,
Deut 21:15 NIV

If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.
Exodus 21:10 NIV

The argument is that it is kind of like a bottle says IF YOU SWALLOW POISON CONTACT THE POISON CONTROL CENTER IMMEDIATELY AND FOLLOW THESE DIRECTIONS

This would not mean that it is okay to swallow poison just because there are directions for what to do afterward

One could argue it would not necessarily be okay to commit polygamy just because there are directions for how to manage a household afterwords. However this argument could not show that polygamy is wrong!

God never gives directions to NOT engage in polygamy as I would hope the bottle of poision would say NOT to drink. Sure someone may be stupid and drink the poison but then it should be expected or mentioned NOT to drink it again. God never tells anyone to "repent" of or leave polygamy but rather He mentions how to manage polygamy which means you're staying in the very act which is not akin to getting help to fix (which includes no more drinking poison) or treat the poison's effects on the body.

One of the prophets, Ezekiel I believe, gives a message from God about how God sees two nations as His wives. Why would any Holy God depict Himself in something immoral, eveer.

There's also the verse that mentions for a man marry his brother's wife if the brother dies. But what if that man is already married then wouldn't that be one clear example of polygamy being prescribed?
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

:::shrugs::: From a biblical point of view I can't really say anything for or against POLYGAMY per se. It's just as bad as it is good. I'm learning more and more a person is wiser to just stick with what GOD called it:

1) GOD called it "two wives".

2) GOD called it "many wives".

3) GOD called it "fourteen wives".

In all of the above examples, where GOD mentions the "wives" (plural) of one man verbatim, the scriptures never condemn it, never call it sin, never require that a man or a woman should repent of it, and never once is it ever described or treated as "adultery" or "fornication". "Plural marriage" works for me, because I believe I know what GOD called marriage. I just don't feel comfortable with the broad-brushstroke the world calls POLYGAMY today. This is a highly abused word that is largely misunderstood. I suppose it would have worked well back in the 18th. century but that's the problem: People don't even know what marriage is anymore, let alone what POLYGAMY is. I find no fault with what GOD called it and if GOD called it "wives" plural of one man, then that's good enough for me. I've been through the meat grinder on this more times than I care to recall and I think it is a shame what the social engineers of this day and age have done to our English language. In the Holy Bible I see GOD blessing such unions, directing them, sustaining them, providing for them, protecting them, and even establishing them. Nowhere, in all of the scripture, either in the New Testament or the Old Testament, do I once read of anyone being told to repent of having more than one wife, and I also think that it should be stated that the husband of wives (plural) is also the "husband of one wife". I believe that if having more than one wife were indeed "immoral" or "unethical" GOD would have condemned it, seeing that He had every opportunity to do so, but did otherwise. The Father of lights does not keep His people in the dark. That is my view. GOD bless you.

I hope this helps. :)
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

Whether or not polygamy is moral in the general sense, I think there may be a difficulty for the American Christian (and Christians in MANY other countries) to be involved in it. Romans 13:1-6 states that, "1 Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 Consequently, whoever rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves. 3 For rulers hold no terror for those who do right, but for those who do wrong. Do you want to be free from fear of the one in authority? Then do what is right and you will be commended. 4 For the one in authority is God’s servant for your good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for rulers do not bear the sword for no reason. They are God’s servants, agents of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer. 5 Therefore, it is necessary to submit to the authorities, not only because of possible punishment but also as a matter of conscience."

In many States, any cohabitation is illegal (just because a law is not rigorously enforced does not give us license to disobey). In others, polygamy is either a misdemeanor or a felony, and a felony in most of those (depending on the State). (see bigamy for explanation, also, this link will be helpful for determining your State's stance on the subject: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legal_status_of_polygamy.) Is there a way to reconcile this without going against scripture and conscience? Thanks!
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

Actually I don't think we will need to worry about it for very long...there will be a bigamy trial this spring in Texas, and bigamy is the only charge to my knowledge...that being the case it is likely to be ruled unconstitutional in that marriage is not a right granted to individuals by the state, it is a Natural Right or Law which when regulated violates individual freedoms. The bigamy laws are soon to come off the books...

When the laws were original passed it was a frontal attack against the Mormon Church which would not even be attempted today. I look at the intent of the law...what is its purpose, and who is it protecting? The bigamy laws prevent a man or woman from freely practicing a natural right or law to marry whom they choose. The bigamy laws were passed in an effort to force a majority religious doctrine on the entire population; this being the case, the Federal Courts will likely rule them unconstitutional. Since these laws were put in place to persecute a particular religion I do not consider them to be laws at all, but rather legalized Catholic/Christian doctrine which I feel violates the very witness provided by the scriptures and therefore I follow what I see in the scriptures. To me is is no different than the Canadian hate speech laws that prohibit certain sections of scripture about homosexual behavior from being shared. Are we to follow man's law, or what we clearly see written and demonstrated in the scriptures?

I think you will find this article from Jonathan Turley published on 10/3/2004 interesting:

http://www.usatoday.com/news/opinion/co ... rley_x.htm

"Individuals have a recognized constitutional right to engage in any form of consensual sexual relationship with any number of partners. Thus, a person can live with multiple partners and even sire children from different partners so long as they do not marry. However, when that same person accepts a legal commitment for those partners "as a spouse," we jail them."

"The difference between a polygamist and the follower of an "alternative lifestyle" is often religion. In addition to protecting privacy, the Constitution is supposed to protect the free exercise of religion unless the religious practice injures a third party or causes some public danger.

However, in its 1878 opinion in Reynolds vs. United States, the court refused to recognize polygamy as a legitimate religious practice, dismissing it in racist and anti-Mormon terms as "almost exclusively a feature of the life of Asiatic and African people." In later decisions, the court declared polygamy to be "a blot on our civilization" and compared it to human sacrifice and "a return to barbarism." Most tellingly, the court found that the practice is "contrary to the spirit of Christianity and of the civilization which Christianity has produced in the Western World."

Contrary to the court's statements, the practice of polygamy is actually one of the common threads between Christians, Jews and Muslims."

"While the justifications have changed over the years, the most common argument today in favor of a criminal ban is that underage girls have been coerced into polygamist marriages. There are indeed such cases. However, banning polygamy is no more a solution to child abuse than banning marriage would be a solution to spousal abuse. The country has laws to punish pedophiles and there is no religious exception to those laws."
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

I can understand the issue at hand in the court cases, and I appreciate the input... however, I don't think that my question was answered. The laws may change (as laws do), but since they have not yet changed, evangelistic polygamists stand in contradiction to God's Holy Word in subjection to the authorities. How can this be reconciled at this moment?
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

The laws may change (as laws do), but since they have not yet changed, evangelistic polygamists stand in contradiction to God's Holy Word in subjection to the authorities. How can this be reconciled at this moment?

I understand your concern as it is very important that we not be rebels which is often an issue fueled by the sin of pride. I am with you on that.

But, if you'll hang on for a little while, I hope to address this very issue in a full length teaching article. We had numerous people ask this very question when I asked what people would like to read and learn more about. I find this to be a very common question here and elsewhere. Believers naturally do realize that respect for authority, even if the authority is not the best, remains an essential goal for us as we honor our Lord and his word. Even parents understand this concept. Even if the parent is not always right or even if the parent is often wrong we still do our best to counsel children to show respect and honor to their parents even if the parent is in error. The same applies to government as well.

I think when I write that article I'll cover in depth some issues that may spark a deeper interest in you as well give you some meat to contemplate, and even if it might not totally reverse your mind (though it might) I think you will see that there are ways in which this can be practiced yet not in such a way that it defies or shows disrespect for the government or ruling authorities.

More to come later......
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

I wonder, K12, if we might agree that there is a distinction between respectful civil disobedience in answer to the call of a higher authority as taught and practiced by Gandhi and Peter vs. "Screw you, you can't make me behave!" rebellion?

If not, we have no common point of reference from which to discuss, and I can only advise you to follow your conscience and obey the laws as stated.

If so, the remaining question would then be: Which is the Christian based and motivated practice of PM?

Of course, I readily admit that it could be nothing more than the latter, with Christianity used as a justifying cloak. Seen it. It's ugly. The motives do tend to shine through.

But it isn't necessarily the only possibility. A couple of thoughts would seem to apply.

First, Jesus said to "Render to Caesar what is Caesar's and to God what is God's." He said nothing advocating rendering to Caesar what is rightfully God's but Caesar lays claim to. I suggest that when Jesus said, "What God has joined together let no man put asunder," He was saying that Marriage is God's, not Caesar's. Caesar needs to butt out.

It follows that politely proceeding without involving Caesar is not in opposition to the Paul's intent. He himself was imprisoned, beaten, etc. over and over for polite civil disobedience. Finally was martyred.

But is PM important enough to warrant this sort of civil disoedience? Again, I conclude "Yes."

At the dawn of creation, God Himself pronounced, "It is not good for mankind to be alone." He took a hand in fixing that, and His chosen solution was marriage. Psalms 68:5,6 says He still does.

There are more women than men. That's a fact. Do the math. His other options for solution have been detailed elsewhere in this forum. But we don't see him making more men from the dust of the ground although there is plenty of material at hand, nor any of the other options.

What we do see throughout scripture seems to be, loosely paraphrased, "You two, and you three, play nice and make families, so everyone has a place in one."

To most of us here, that is pretty important. In fact, it's an over-riding consideration which not only allows but demands the civil disobedience involved.

You are, of course, free to disagree. But don't expect too much success in changing our minds. I, at least, am pretty convinced and so am following my own conscience as you also must do.
 
Re: Just because polygamy is not illegal does it make it mor

WWDBD?

What Would Dietrich Bonhoeffer Do?

1 Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 Consequently, whoever rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted, and those who do so will bring judgment on themselves. 3 For rulers hold no terror for those who do right, but for those who do wrong. Do you want to be free from fear of the one in authority? Then do what is right and you will be commended. 4 For the one in authority is God’s servant for your good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for rulers do not bear the sword for no reason. They are God’s servants, agents of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer. 5 Therefore, it is necessary to submit to the authorities, not only because of possible punishment but also as a matter of conscience.

6 This is also why you pay taxes, for the authorities are God’s servants, who give their full time to governing. 7 Give to everyone what you owe them: If you owe taxes, pay taxes; if revenue, then revenue; if respect, then respect; if honor, then honor.

Romans 13:1-7 NIV

the purpose of authorities administered by God is to administrate justice, if they are not administrating justice they are not an authority set up as legitimate by God.

Any authority that outlaws polygyny is not doing it's job at administering justice because they are administering anti-justice, therefor if another authority wishes to use there authority to administer justice on the anti-justice authority then perhaps the authority administering justice on the anti-justice authority is the authority we are supposed to obey between the two.

For instance when America went to war against Germany it was not possible to obey both authorities, so you had to choose one or the other or neither.....

During times of civil war are a more clear example, because you have to choose one country or the other and cannot choose both. You could not serve both Union and Confederate as a soldier but had to choose one or the other or neither, however perhaps you could serve both with food and medical attention as a civilian, but... if both asked you to kill the other side and not kill their own side you cannot obey both all the time can you?

So Mathew 6:24 eliminates the whole idea of government obedience to every government altogether when there are multiple governments involved with conflicting demands.........

24 “No one can serve two masters. Either you will hate the one and love the other, or you will be devoted to the one and despise the other. You cannot serve both God and money.
Mathew 6:24 NIV 2010

If there are even two dissenters who wish to administer justice in a whole country are there two governments or one government or even more governments?

WWDBD......
 
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