Hello Friends! I know this has been discussed elsewhere but wanted to receive input from the currently active group here on the proper translation of 1 Timothy 3:2. Do you believe Pastors/Priests/Elders are to be "husband of one wife" or "husband of first wife" and why? Looking forward to your thoughts!
GREEK:
Key word for discussion is "μιᾶς" or "mia(s)"
MIA:
Strongs Concordance 3391 "mia" is defined as "first, one, other." (https://biblehub.com/greek/3391.htm)
“Mia” can also be translated as first, just as it is in Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:1-2, and Acts 20:7. Furthermore, in 1 Timothy 5:9, a widow's "one man" is not “mia” but the Greek word "heis", meaning the numeral-one, and not meaning the adjective of "first". This indicates “heis” could have been used in 1 Tim 3:2 to indicate the numeral-one but was not. Why?
Translating this passage from the modern Gentile/Roman cultural mindset we arrive at "husband of one wife." However, "husband of first wife" is a viable option as well.
So how do we choose?
PREMISE 1:
The Lord repeatedly calls for us to be faithful to our first wife along with any more wives one might marry (e.g. Exo 21:10, Mal 2:14-16, Matt 19:9, 1 Cor 7:11).
In this regard, "husband of first wife" makes sense. An Overseer in the Church should not be someone divorcing (instead of reconciling) and remarrying; this is Hypergamy. Hypergamy is culturally accepted today but not Biblically acceptable. An Overseer simply being married is not the key to being qualified as an Elder here; it's that he has maintained a healthy marriage, and more specifically, his first marriage. His marriage to his first wife reveals that he is capable of being faithful to the family of believers he oversees.
The only exception I see here is an Overseer having divorced an adulterous woman (see Matt 19:9). Thoughts?
PREMISE 2:
The second reason “husband of first wife” makes more sense is that multiple Overseers/Elders of Israel in the Old Covenant had more than one wife. The 12 Tribes of Israel were birthed from Jacob and his 4 wives. The Tribe of Levi became the tribe of priests hence the term “Levitical Priesthood.” Elkanah was a descendant of Levi, therefore a priest, and had two wives Hannah and Peninnah. Hannah gave birth to the prophet Samuel.
Overall, my question is this: if it wasn’t sinful or a disqualifier for a priest to have multiple wives under the Old Covenant, how did it transform to be a disqualifier in the New Covenant? What evidence supports this conclusion other than 1 Tim 3:2?
CONCLUSION:
Based on the “husband of first wife” evidence presented, it appears that there is no disqualifier for Priests/Overseers to have more than one wife under the New Covenant. However I am open to hearing thoughtful challenges to this conclusion. Thank you, Brethren!
GREEK:
"δεῖ οὖν τὸν ἐπίσκοπον ἀνεπίλημπτον εἶναι, μιᾶς γυναικὸς ἄνδρα, νηφάλιον, σώφρονα, κόσμιον, φιλόξενον, διδακτικόν,"
ENGLISH NASB:
"An overseer, then, must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, prudent, respectable, hospitable, able to teach,"
Key word for discussion is "μιᾶς" or "mia(s)"
MIA:
Strongs Concordance 3391 "mia" is defined as "first, one, other." (https://biblehub.com/greek/3391.htm)
“Mia” can also be translated as first, just as it is in Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:1-2, and Acts 20:7. Furthermore, in 1 Timothy 5:9, a widow's "one man" is not “mia” but the Greek word "heis", meaning the numeral-one, and not meaning the adjective of "first". This indicates “heis” could have been used in 1 Tim 3:2 to indicate the numeral-one but was not. Why?
Translating this passage from the modern Gentile/Roman cultural mindset we arrive at "husband of one wife." However, "husband of first wife" is a viable option as well.
So how do we choose?
PREMISE 1:
The Lord repeatedly calls for us to be faithful to our first wife along with any more wives one might marry (e.g. Exo 21:10, Mal 2:14-16, Matt 19:9, 1 Cor 7:11).
In this regard, "husband of first wife" makes sense. An Overseer in the Church should not be someone divorcing (instead of reconciling) and remarrying; this is Hypergamy. Hypergamy is culturally accepted today but not Biblically acceptable. An Overseer simply being married is not the key to being qualified as an Elder here; it's that he has maintained a healthy marriage, and more specifically, his first marriage. His marriage to his first wife reveals that he is capable of being faithful to the family of believers he oversees.
The only exception I see here is an Overseer having divorced an adulterous woman (see Matt 19:9). Thoughts?
PREMISE 2:
The second reason “husband of first wife” makes more sense is that multiple Overseers/Elders of Israel in the Old Covenant had more than one wife. The 12 Tribes of Israel were birthed from Jacob and his 4 wives. The Tribe of Levi became the tribe of priests hence the term “Levitical Priesthood.” Elkanah was a descendant of Levi, therefore a priest, and had two wives Hannah and Peninnah. Hannah gave birth to the prophet Samuel.
"And he had two wives; the name of the one was Hannah, and the name of the other Peninnah" 1 Samuel 1:2
Overall, my question is this: if it wasn’t sinful or a disqualifier for a priest to have multiple wives under the Old Covenant, how did it transform to be a disqualifier in the New Covenant? What evidence supports this conclusion other than 1 Tim 3:2?
CONCLUSION:
Based on the “husband of first wife” evidence presented, it appears that there is no disqualifier for Priests/Overseers to have more than one wife under the New Covenant. However I am open to hearing thoughtful challenges to this conclusion. Thank you, Brethren!
