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When did PM become taboo scripturaly?

I posted my woman monogamy choice question in a christian truther forum I am a part of and seemed to have really stirred the hornets nest. I haven't had the chance to put together a thorough response to everyones arguments there, but I left them with a question that I have not seen asked before. Maybe it would be of some use in your debates.

If polygyny was corrected or outlawed in the new testament, when exactly did it take affect? Immediatley or over time? What about those already particpating, what were the procedures for them? I am curious to see what answers I get.
 
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Do you mean to ask "If polygyny was corrected.."?
 
I posted my woman monogamy choice question in a christian truther forum I am a part of and seemed to have really stirred the hornets nest. I haven't had the chance to put together a thorough response to everyones arguments there, but I left them with a question that I have not seen asked before. Maybe it would be of some use in your debates.
It's a good question because there is no affirmative answer for it.

I'll play devil's advocate.
If polygyny was corrected or outlawed in the new testament, when exactly did it take affect?
Um... I can't find that anywhere except for maybe the one wife restriction for Bishops.
Immediatley or over time? What about those already particpating, what were the procedures for them? I am curious to see what answers I get.
Um, I guess the only thing to do is to tell those who are already in a plural marriage that they have to do something God says he hates and break God's intention for marriage which is until death.

It's a good question because nobody can truthfully answer it with scripture.
I like to point people to the Matthew 22 and 25 parables where Jesus shows God set up multiple marriages for him in 22, and where Jesus takes 5 virgins into the "marriages". The word for "marriage feast, marriage, wedding" is the genitive masculine accusative plural.

If Jesus himself used a plural word to describe how many marriages he was lined up for, then being Christlike includes plural marriage.
 
I posted my woman monogamy choice question in a christian truther forum I am a part of and seemed to have really stirred the hornets nest. I haven't had the chance to put together a thorough response to everyones arguments there, but I left them with a question that I have not seen asked before. Maybe it would be of some use in your debates.

If polygyny was corrected or outlawed in the new testament, when exactly did it take affect? Immediatley or over time? What about those already particpating, what were the procedures for them? I am curious to see what answers I get.
Polygyny was not 'corrected or outlawed' in the new testament.

Roman law outlawed polygyny for all in the empire EXCEPT Jews. Church fathers as late as 300 years after Yeshua described the Jews as having 'four or five' wives (Chrysostom?) And, church fathers were preaching against polygyny among early Christians (Tertullian's De Monogomia). Those are evidences that polygyny was widely accepted and practiced among both Jews and early Christians. It was spoken against but the middle RCC, but not 'outlawed' until 1566? at the Council of Trent.

Rough quick facts, but ammunition/fodder for research.

See: https://natsab.files.wordpress.com/2019/08/polygyny-in-second-temple-period.odt

And: https://www.academia.edu/4944609/How_Much_Jewish_Polygyny_in_Roman_Palestine_2001_
 
I posted my woman monogamy choice question in a christian truther forum I am a part of and seemed to have really stirred the hornets nest. I haven't had the chance to put together a thorough response to everyones arguments there, but I left them with a question that I have not seen asked before. Maybe it would be of some use in your debates.

If polygyny was corrected or outlawed in the new testament, when exactly did it take affect? Immediatley or over time? What about those already particpating, what were the procedures for them? I am curious to see what answers I get.
Polygyny was never outlawed in New Testatement. In fact, careful reader will find new proofs for polygyny there.

@PeteR is right. Roman law had negative influence on this custom. Horewer, this custom has persisted among Christians outside Rome. Christian barbarians never had problem with having multiple wives.

Charlemagne had 10 wives/concubines around 800 AC.

What killed this custom is gnosticism in church. This belief states that all material is evil and all spiritual is good. Consequnce is that reproduction is seen as something evil by nature. Such people can barely stomach 1:1 marriage. Polygyny is for them too much evil.

In 10th or 11th papacy was finally able to forbid priests from having concubines and then enforce celibacy. This also killed polygyny around other people. Gnosticism and keeping wealth in church were reason.
 
Preciesely, the only evidence for monogamy is secular law. Thats the point I am trying to make. Another argument I see is the condition based polygyny. "The conditions were harsh then, and women needed more protection, didn't have rights, couldn't own property, ect. but now its no longer needed because of societies advances." This is a 1st world 21st century argument, which totally ignores regional/world war, natural disasters, famine/disease, govt/economic/social collapse, depop agendas? What level of catastraprophe is needed to bring a region back to the same or worse conditions? Is it ok then?

@PeteR Someone posted a video rebutting polygamy as a response. I was going to send to you Pete but I know you're backlogged and I haven't had the chance to view it yet. It may already be in your qeue, but ill try to watch it tonight, its so hard to watch those. Same arugments over and over, kudos to you for being able to sit through them.
 
Good thread about history of polygyny:
 
Preciesely, the only evidence for monogamy is secular law. Thats the point I am trying to make. Another argument I see is the condition based polygyny. "The conditions were harsh then, and women needed more protection, didn't have rights, couldn't own property, ect. but now its no longer needed because of societies advances." This is a 1st world 21st century argument, which totally ignores regional/world war, natural disasters, famine/disease, govt/economic/social collapse, depop agendas? What level of catastraprophe is needed to bring a region back to the same or worse conditions? Is it ok then?

@PeteR Someone posted a video rebutting polygamy as a response. I was going to send to you Pete but I know you're backlogged and I haven't had the chance to view it yet. It may already be in your qeue, but ill try to watch it tonight, its so hard to watch those. Same arugments over and over, kudos to you for being able to sit through them.
Send it... but, post this link to them: https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLJrMBrRFLh5dGQtnFmDq2hMcEirSDLyq6

😁😁😁
 
Charlemagne had 10 wives/concubines around 800 AC.

Bill Clinton had twelve mistresses over the years. Probably more since he left office.
 
Pete and others above are all correct. But I'll go back at least to the header question for a correction there:

When did PM become taboo scripturally?​

Easy: Never. But, as has been pointed out, what I refer to ('cause He does!) as the Whore Church not only changed "law", but then went back and 'modified' Scripture (call it the REALLY New 'testament') to fit the New Doctrine.
 
I posted my woman monogamy choice question in a christian truther forum I am a part of and seemed to have really stirred the hornets nest. I haven't had the chance to put together a thorough response to everyones arguments there, but I left them with a question that I have not seen asked before. Maybe it would be of some use in your debates.

If polygyny was corrected or outlawed in the new testament, when exactly did it take affect? Immediatley or over time? What about those already particpating, what were the procedures for them? I am curious to see what answers I get.
Since God has given the command for leverite marriage and never changed His law, to make polygyny taboo would be contradictory. He doesn't contradict Himself. Point out to those who oppose what God doesn't oppose, they are the ones who must prove polygyny is taboo.
 
Sorry to play grammar police but it's a masculine accusative plural noun.
Would you mind sending me some officialese scholarly magic wording so I can add that to my book?
 
Thanks! I want to get something like that correct!
I see the definite article is used indicating it is "the weddings". If there was no definite article some might argue it is just different festivities.
 
That is an excellent question @RemnantResilience. Obviously, we all know well that polygamy is not actually forbidden in the New Testament. All the "proof texts" are interpreted wrong. However, most people still believe those proof texts do indicate polygamy being forbidden.

This means that the question "if it was forbidden in the New Testament, when did it take effect, and were existing polygamous families required to divorce" is an excellent question to get the other person to define their position more clearly, and try to find it in scripture. Hopefully, in their search to answer that question, they will start to see their position fall apart.
 
For anyone who might be interested here was my response to the thread, I was talking about earlier. I had posted my monogamy question in their forum. Perhaps the community can find some value in it. They locked my thread so I haven't posted my below reply yet, and will be making a new thread later today when there is more people on. If anyone has any corrections or additions to the non opinion stuff let me know.

POST STARTS HERE

Sorry for taking so long to respond, this new year has been a little crazy and life takes priority over posting. Unfortunately now that I have the time window to sit down and crank out some thorough responses, it looks like the thread has been locked. I don’t know if I will be able to do such large responses in the future as these take quite a bit of time to put together. I spent around 15 hours putting this together and barely scratched the surface, but hopefully it is thorough enough for those who have been waiting for a reply.

This first one is for Coolrunningsmon’s replies. I will address CaseyMarion's, and Frameofdust's replies further down.

“Most scholars believe that Paul referred to the Greek's pagan practices as including polygamy and that's why his writings deal with it on a couple of occasions especially in reference to the qualifications of the bishop. My personal belief is that the qualifications for bishop and deacon are something every Christian should hope to measure up to in this life. 1 Timothy 3:2, Titus 1:6, 1 Timothy 3:12” - Coolrunningsmon


The Israelite's were practicing polygyny long before, during, and even after the Greeks were around, and even before Israel became Israel. If it was such an issue why didn’t Yahshua address it directly like he did so many other cultural issues of the Romans at the time? Can polygyny itself even be attributed to paganism in origin scripturally or historically? We first see it mentioned as early as Genesis and Lamech is clearly referencing Yah's statement to Cain, not some pagan God. I would suggest doing some research into one of the only monogamous Greek gods, Hera who was their goddess of marriage. As well as the monogamous laws of ancient Rome and who they applied to and were given by. Found in the links below.

Regarding Paul and the bishops and deacons, Paul knew Yah’s Law and that he could not add to it or subtract from it. Anything he says should not contradict established scripture. It must also be considered that many of Paul’s writings were to specific situations ongoing in the early church and should be read under that context first. There are 2 other ways the word mia, used for “one” can be translated either as “first” or “at least one”. Meaning a person should not have divorced his first wife, or should have at least one wife. Modern culture has been monogamous for so long it is understandable that it would be interpreted under the “one limit” lens.

The fact of the matter is neither Paul nor any other of the apostles were given the authority to make new commands or nullify others in regards to Yah’s law (Matthew 5:17-37). However in regards to the church even if it was a limit for those seeking a church position, it is not a commandment of Yah, but of Paul and would only apply to those seeking that specific position. Just as priests were only allowed to marry virgins as to not dishonor their children (Lev. 21:13-15) and Kings were limited not to only one but to “excess” of things, because his focus was to be on the prosperity of the kingdom not his own house (Deut. 17:14-20). It only outlines the limits for those in that very specfic position.

You can believe what you will regarding the measure of a christian, but that does not make it a commandment for all men, just your opinion. Notice how Paul the very one who sets the limit which you are using to measure a christian, would disqualify himself from measuring up to that belief in choosing to remain unmarried and or celibate. I am sure you don’t think so lowly of Paul, because of his choice. I believe Yah calls each person to his own will and allows room for the various options he has set up. Just as a body has many parts we have different strengths and weaknesses and are called to different roles.

Marriage is a covenant, and what we see in scripture is Yah define that covenant as being between 2 parties, one man and one woman (Gen.2:24, Eph. 5:31). Not a woman and a woman (but do notice there is no command regarding sexual relations among women), or a man and a man, or man and a beast, nor man and flippy, nor group marriage like polyamory, ect. He then outlines the terms and requirements of this covenant for each party throughout his law (Exo. 20:12-20, 21:1-11, 22:16-17, Leviticus 18, 19, 20, Num. 5:29-31, Deut 22:13-30). Most of those limits are based on the marital status of the woman, not the man. In doing so he limits the amount of covenants that a woman may have at a time, but no where does he limit the amount of covenants a man can have. He does outline how multiple covenants are to be handled though (Exodus 21:10-11). In poylgyny the women are not married to each other but only to the one husband. He is the root they are the branches. Each covenant stands on its own separate from any others the man may have simultaneously, and he is required to fulfill the requirements of each covenant he cuts.

There are two places I can think of where man is told to marry. Gen. 1:28 and the redemption of a brother who dies without a son (Deut 25:5-6). We see how serious Yah takes this issue in Genesis before Israel was even a nation, long before Sinai (Genesis 38:8-10). After Mt. Sinai we see how shameful it was to refuse this duty (Deut 25:6-10), if it is shameful to refuse it, then it is honorable to uphold it. There is no exception stated for this command whether a man was single, monogamous, polygynous, or celibate. I suppose an argument could be made for a man fitting the description of Deut. 23:1, but it is not implicitly stated in the command. Yah could also perform a miracle in such a situation, as we see he does with many barren women.

Paul chose to be unmarried. Is it ever counted against Paul for making that choice? No, but no where do I remember seeing in the Law where Yah commands a man must be married, only dose he state that it is not good for man to be alone (Gen. 2:18). But if Paul had been called to the duty of redeeming a brother would it be counted against him if he chose not to? I think so. This shows marriage and non marriage are dictated by circumstance. Whether one seeks marriage or not, should the circumstance to participate arrive, the requirements of and for marriage for all who inhabit the earth do not change until heaven and earth pass away.

“But I would retort that God never condoned it, instead in every instance he either promised he would punish it, or did execute judgement on it. Deuteronomy 17:17, 1 Kings 11:4-8” – Coolrunningsmon

Before going forward into addressing the various scriptures cited. I want to state and this may not be you, but often I see people cite OT law to justify a belief of the church but then ignore other things of the law, saying the OT no longer applies. Leaning on it only to justify a position they hold. Is this not illogical? It either does or it doesn’t we cannot pick and choose, messiah says it has not passed away, if someone is going to cite it they should be holding to it should they not? Otherwise it doesn’t apply to them, how can it hold them up?

There is no punishment listed in Deut. 17:14-20, and I am not aware of any punishments specifically for the act of participating in Polygyny in either OT or NT but there are many who are honored and called righteous who did participate. No where is that participation counted against them. In the same way we don’t see anyone called righteous for being monogamous or celibate. Correlation is not causation.

Regarding 1 Kings 11:4-8 if we step back 3 versus we can very clearly see the context of what actually happened and see that it was the marrying of foreign wives who Yah specifically said not to intermarry with that were the issue. Not marrying multiple wives itself. (1 Kings 11:1-2) 1King Solomon, however, loved **many foreign women** along with the daughter of Pharaoh—women of Moab, **Ammon**, Edom, and **Sidon**, as well as Hittite women. 2These women were from the nations about which the LORD had told the Israelites, “You must not intermarry with them, for surely they will turn your hearts after their gods.” Yet Solomon clung to these women in love.

If you read even further into the chapter versus 7-13 you will see Yah outline in detail Solomon's trespasses and punishment. None of which is in regards to hi Polygyny. Also notice how in 1 Kings 11:4-8 David who also had multiple wives did not have this issue and is spoken of as an example of how Solomon should have conducted himself.

We know David’s wives did not turn his heart away, his coveting of another mans wife did. We see Yah address this through Nathan saying not only did he give him the wives he had but he would have given him more wives if all he did was ask (2 Samuel 12:8). If you continue reading you will notice that what made Yah angry was the adultery and murder David committed, and that is what is punished and spoken against. He already had multiple marriages, and they were not addressed nor mentioned during David’s rebuke wherein Yah says **HE** is going to cause calamity in David’s house because of David’s trespasses towards Uriah. It does not say because of or out of David’s marriages calamity fell upon him.

As for the additional scriptures. Not sure how these pertain to the original question, but I will address them as they apply to the topic.

1 Corinthians 7:39 – Length of the marriage covenant.

Genesis 20:1-18 – Adultery is bad and has been since before Sinai.

Deuteronomy 25:5 – Discussed above, Command to redeem your brother.

Ephesians 5:31 – Discussed above, defines the parties of a marriage covenant.

1 Peter 3:7 – Describes how the 2 parties should interact with each other while in covenant.

Ephesians 5:23 – Describes the authority structure of a marriage.

“Ah yes, the case for Christian Crack Cocaine.
Show me where in the Bible it says though shalt not to smoke crack”


And as a bonus response look up the word pharmakeia, then See Deut. 18:20, Galatians 5:20, Revelation 18:23, Revelation 9:21, Revelation 21:8, and Revelation 22:15.
 
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