Further to that: When we look at how ancient Semitic people defined concubinage, we are not looking to find out what God authorises. On the contrary, we are simply finding out "When the ancient author of this passage used the word 'concubine', what did they understand it to mean?". That's all. It helps us to understand the meaning of a passage.
And concubinage IS marriage. Concubines in scripture are referred to also as wives. Which means it's actually clearer to call them concubine-wives. The distinction is only very slight, and doesn't have any moral implications that I can see.
I also see the distinction as entirely a human invention. In God's eyes, men have women (wives). In man's eyes, distinctions are drawn between "legal wives" and "de-facto partners" (in our culture), or "wives" and "concubines" (in ancient culture) and so forth. But that's complicating something that is far simpler in the eyes of God.
In the same way, in our culture, men have "women" (wives). Some of those have legal contracts that give them legal inheritance rights ("legal wives"), some do not ("de-facto partners"). This distinction is real, but only has a narrow application to matters of inheritance and secular law. It doesn't affect God's much simpler view of the situation.
And concubinage IS marriage. Concubines in scripture are referred to also as wives. Which means it's actually clearer to call them concubine-wives. The distinction is only very slight, and doesn't have any moral implications that I can see.
I also see the distinction as entirely a human invention. In God's eyes, men have women (wives). In man's eyes, distinctions are drawn between "legal wives" and "de-facto partners" (in our culture), or "wives" and "concubines" (in ancient culture) and so forth. But that's complicating something that is far simpler in the eyes of God.
Eve was a wife. Whether she would be referred to as a "wife" or a "concubine-wife" in ancient Hebrew culture, or a "legal wife" vs "de-facto partner" in our own, is completely irrelevant. At the time of Adam and Eve humans hadn't got around to inventing any of this complexity. Nobody had invented either a ketubbah or a marriage licence.What was Eve’s Kettubah?
I'm saying that men have "women" (wives). In ancient Hebrew culture, a wife who did not have a ketubbah (ie a contract that specified her inheritence rights) was called a "concubine", and that helps to explain things like why Abraham just gave gifts to the children of his concubines but they did not inherit alongside Isaac. But it's only a legal distinction with a narrow application to things like inheritance. When we read "concubine" we can know something more about the nature of the relationship between the husband and that wife, but in most cases that detail isn't very relevant. God saw both as wives.So are we saying that to have sex with a woman and a contract is marriage? And sex without a contract is concubinage and not fornication?
In the same way, in our culture, men have "women" (wives). Some of those have legal contracts that give them legal inheritance rights ("legal wives"), some do not ("de-facto partners"). This distinction is real, but only has a narrow application to matters of inheritance and secular law. It doesn't affect God's much simpler view of the situation.