Good point. Getting back to Joseph taking Mary in marriage, but not having intercourse until after Jesus was born. It made me go back to that passage in Matthew 1, and do you know what is so interesting? It says that Mary was betrothed (v. 18), and that Joseph was her husband (v.19). Here is another example of the use of the possessive pronoun: “Joseph the man of her.” Joseph was thinking of divorcing (same word as in Matt 5:31) Mary (v. 19-20). Then the Angel told Joseph not to be afraid “to take/receive Mary your woman” (again the possessive pronoun). Mary was ‘pledged’ to Joseph, which means she could not become another man’s, but she was still to be ‘taken’ by him, and after he had done that (v. 25), he had no intercourse with her. So, if having intercourse is by definition where marriage starts, we have a hard time explaining how she could be his woman prior.
I know a video that explains this, but it's Portuguese-Brazil.