S
Especially with the Matthew 5:27-28. A desire to have sex with a woman, devoid of the intent or the dowry or the covenant, is adultery. That's a slam dunk VV76. Those are the Words of Christ. What do you do with that?
Any woman? Or just a married woman? I thought adultery could only happen with a married woman? It would help if you would be more precise in your arguments Zec. Apparently you’re finding satisfaction dunking on the kiddie goal.
Ah, my old friend porniea. How I've miss ye. Fornication isn't a separate sin VV. It's a refence to all of the sexual sins listed in the Old Testament. IT IS NOT SEX BEFORE MARRIAGE WHICH DOES NOT EXIST. Did you never stop to wonder why the New Testament never reaffirmed all of the prohibitions on things like incest and bestiality? Well it did. Every time it says fornication, a sin not listed in the Law, what it means is "prohibited sexual acts." It does not mean sex before marriage because then you would have the New Testament obsessed with a sin that was never recognized in the Old Testament while never once condemning anything else other adultery and whatever the heyhira it is we're not allowed to do with harlots.
I really have enjoyed this Zec and probably would have never even studied this topic otherwise. The issue with your approach to what you believe is that you make half baked assumptions based upon faulty interpretations of one or two scriptures and assume that the rest of Scripture supports these bad assumptions.
Fornication does include all the prohibited sexual acts that you mentioned, but where you're going wrong with this is that you assume that sex before marriage is not included in the fornication category. Allow me to shed some light.
Genesis 34:7, 8 . . . . because he (Shechem) had wrought folly in Israel in lying with Jacob's daughter; which thing ought not to be done. And Hamor communed with them, saying, The soul of my son Shechem longeth for your daughter: I pray you give her him to wife.
This is yet another passage that doesn't indicate that she was his wife just by sex alone, and he was even holding her hostage at the time so the sex + cohabitation clause could be argued. Still not his wife yet without the permission of the father.
Sex + cohabitation - consent of the father for a maiden = no marriage
Deut. 22:21 . . . if the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel, . . . they shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the whore in her fathers house
Jeremiah 29:23 Because they have committed villany (the same word translated as folly above) in Israel, and have committed adultery with their neighbors wives.
Leviticus 19:29 Do not prostitute thy daughter, to cause her to be a whore. In this case,
sex + payment to the father still does not equal marriage
Leviticus 21:7 They shall not take a wife that is a whore, or profane
Leviticus 21:9 And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father.
Numbers 25:1 And Israel abode in Shittim, and the people began to commit whoredom with the daughters of Moab.
Whoredom, not marriage.
Deuteronomy 23:18 Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore . . . into the house of the Lord thy God for any vow. Again,
payment + sex and no marriage
Ezekiel 23:8 Neither left she her whoredoms brought from Egypt: for in her youth they lay with her, and they bruised the breasts of her virginity, and poured their whoredom upon her
Hosea 4:14 I will not punish your daughters when they commit whoredom, nor your spouses when they commit adultery, for themselves are separated with whores and they sacrifice with harlots
Apparently, whoredom is what unmarried women do and harlotry is what married women do if they are being paid for sex outside of covenant.
Apparently, the idea of "wrought folly" or profaning her fathers house is what unmarried women do when they are consenting to sex but not being paid for it.
Adultery is what married women do when they have sex outside of the covenant and aren't paid for it.
All four of these situations are ones Biblically described as sex with various instances that could have equaled marriage but didn't because that wasn't their intent.
Sex alone or even with payment does not equal marriage unless the intent for marriage is present. Only then can it be considered "marriage" and it should become (at least somewhat) public knowledge.