Thank you for the question. My reasons are simple
@FollowingHim. Thayer includes a reference to 1 Cor. 14:34 under 5. The writer chose to use λαλέω rather than λέγω, the more common verb for saying or speaking and, because of that, communicating what is consistent with the context. For example, if you look at other places λαλέω is used, you will see in e.g. Acts 13:42, the NKJV translators have chosen the English word
preached for this same verb;
So when the Jews went out of the synagogue, the Gentiles begged that these words might be preached to them the next Sabbath. (See also e.g. Acts 14:25
preached; Rev. 17:1
talked etc.
) This word λαλέω is the word that communicates the restrictions on the women using the speaking gifts most accurately - which is what Paul is dealing with there in Chapter 14.
To answer your question simply; I adhere to the three basic rules of biblical interpretation: context, context, context.
I note a certain other person just rants, and raves and hurls abuse at those he disagrees with in spite of the fact he has no idea what the words used mean. By his own admission he doesn't even know there is a difference between λαλέω and λέγω and what those words would communicate in their various contexts and constructions.
Really? But he contradicts himself saying they can sing.
