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Concubines... just a bit of mental jousting.

You could make that same objection for 3/4 of the words in the OT. Words mean things. The scriptures document history and are not a dictionary. We don't get to just write concubine out of scripture or redefine it simply because it wasn't defined.



Abraham gave his concubines son's gift's and sent them away. They did not inherit. (Gen 25:5-6) Whereas Jacob's were counted as son's and did receive inheritance (in a manner of speaking).

We see here it could go either way. One might say it was the father's choice (at least before the covenant). But it may also have come down to whether the father regarded them as his son's or not. You see that in the difference between how Jacob and Abraham treated their offspring. And this is consistent with the culture and law of the day; which protected against abuses such as in the case of Jephthah.

Now the Deuteronomy 21 laws on inheritance refer's to wives; but that word is the generic term for woman. So one could make an argument either way with respect to concubines. I wouldn't be quick to levy the post covenant story of Jephthah to argue against inheritance for concubine's son's. Not with the way the Lord elevated him above all Israel as Judge. It could simply be his brothers did him wrong.

We don't get to write concubinage in either. There is simply no definition of it or regulations surrounding it. The scriptures do include histories, many of which are in direct violation of the Laws scripture contains. We don't imitate men, we follow God.

I'm not saying that concubinage is wrong or a sin. God didn't list it as a sin so it's not a sin. But there's also no way to do it "Biblically" as the Bible is silent on how it's to be practiced. It's not a form of Biblical family in other words.

God's system only has a category for women you've mastered with a small subset inside of that for women you bought and then mastered. There are no other categories in God's direct statements on what we are and are not to do. Concubines existed and God didn't condemn the practice but it's not something He was interested in institutionalizing.
 
I'm not saying that concubinage is wrong or a sin. God didn't list it as a sin so it's not a sin. But there's also no way to do it "Biblically" as the Bible is silent on how it's to be practiced. It's not a form of Biblical family in other words.

So either that means 'biblical family' is meaningless or you've simply created two categories of wrong behavior: sinful and non-Biblical.

The Bible may be silent on HOW it's practice. But its not silent that faithful men of God practiced it. You say its 'not Biblical' since it wasn't clearly defined. But we could equally say it is perfectly Biblical (since faithful men did it without condemnation) and that the details have been left up to us to work out.
 
The Bible talks about concubines, but doesn't define them. It is completely valid to look to external sources to figure out what that word actually meant. Those external sources tell us what a "concubine" was in the culture of the day.

Those external sources do NOT provide us with laws on how to take a concubine, what is right and wrong, for that we look to scripture. And scripture tells us how to treat our women, with very limited distinction between wives and concubines, showing that in both cases God cares greatly for the woman and we should not see any opportunity to mistreat a woman because of her official status.
The term in Hebrew is pilegesh, the equivalent of Greek pallakis(παλλακίς) and Latin pellex. Among the Assyrians the concubine (esirtu) gained the rank of wife only after the veiling ceremony conducted by her spouse, if he so chose to elevate her (Assyrian Code A, 41). The legal formalities, if any, are not described in the Bible. A concubine did not always reside in her husband's home (Judg. 8:31), but such was not the general rule (Judg. 19–20). Her spouse was called the son-inlaw (ḥatan) of her father, who was the father-in-law (ḥoten). Therefore, the concubinage relationship could partake of many aspects of regular marriage. Two famous concubines are mentioned in the Bible. Rizpah the daughter of Aiah the concubine of Saul (II Sam. 3:7) whose moving display of maternal love so moved David that he had her children buried in the family sepulcher (21:8–14) and the concubine of Gibeah whose rape and murder brought about the death of 25,000 members of the tribe of Benjamin and the ban against members of the other tribes intermarrying with them (Judg. 19–21).

Royal concubines were standard among the kings of Israel and Judah, just as in any ancient Near Eastern kingdom (Song 6:8–9). They were clearly distinguished from the wives (II Sam. 5:13; I Kings 11:13; IIChron. 11:21). To lie with a monarch's concubine was tantamount to usurpation of the throne (II Sam. 3:7; 16:21–22). For this reason Abner took Rizpah (II Sam. 3:7). The same concept stands behind Ahitophel'sadvice to Absalom, to "go into his father's concubines" (16:21), and Adonijah's request for Abishag the Shunamite was clearly associated with this custom (I Kings 2:21–24). The harem was usually in the charge of a eunuch (Esth. 2:14; cf. II Kings 9:32). The role of the concubine as the mother of venerable ethnic groups is not overlooked in the genealogies. Their descendants are usually classed as secondary or subsidiary tribes (Gen. 22:24; 36:12), especially the Abrahamic groups (Gen. 25:6; I Chron. 1:32). Within Israel, some of the clans were also the offspring of concubines (I Chron. 2:46; 7:14). In one instance, the term concubine is applied to a handmaiden (shifḥah and aʾmah) who had borne children to her mistress' husband (Gen. 35:22). Such a relationship was usually established because the legal wife was barren (Gen. 16). Ancient marriage arrangements often stipulated that if the wife was barren, she must provide a handmaiden for her husband Naming the handmaiden given to the bride by her father in such cases was evidently related to this practice (Gen. 29:24, 29). If the wife later bore children of her own, they took precedence in the inheritance over those of the handmaiden Gen. 21:12, although the latter did receive a share. Israelite law provided safeguards for the rights of Hebrew girls sold as handmaidens who were to be wed to their purchaser or to his son (Ex. 21:7–11). If the handmaiden bore children for her mistress and then sought to place herself on an equal footing, she normally could not be sold, although she could be reduced to the status of a slave again Gen. 21:12–14, where the slave-concubine and her child are both expelled.

A concubine is firstly defined by Jewish laws as a woman dedicating herself to a particular man, with whom she cohabits without*kiddushin (see *Marriage ) or *ketubbah .

"What is the difference between wives and concubines?

Wives have ketubbah and kiddushin, concubines have neither" (Sanh. 21a; Maim. Yad, Melakhim 4:4; Leḥem Mishneh and Radbaz, ad loc.).

Not all the scholars adopt this reading, however, and Rashi, for instance, comments: "wives with kiddushin and ketubbah, concubines with kiddushin but without ketubbah" (Comm. to Gen. 25:6; see also Comm. Hagra, EH 26, n. 7). This latter reading is apparently that of the Jerusalem Talmud too (TJ, Ket. 5:2, 29d and Hagra, ibid.; but see Mareh ha-Panim thereto). The majority of the *posekim accept the former reading as the correct one (Radbaz to Yad, Melakhim 4:4; Kesef Mishneh and Leḥem Mishneh, as against the Maggid Mishneh, to Yad, Ishut, 1;4; Radbaz, Resp., vol. 4, no. 225; vol. 7, no. 33; Naḥmanides, commentary to Gen. 19:8; 25:6; Ralbag to Judg. 19:1; Rashba, Resp., vol. 4, no. 314). Hence a concubine is to be distinguished both, on the one hand from a married woman, i.e., by ḥuppah ("marriage ceremony"), kiddushin, and ketubbah, and on the other from a woman who does not dedicate herself to one particular man exclusively, but who prostitutes herself; i.e., the harlot (Hassagot Rabad to Ishut 1:4 and see also Rema to EH 26:1).

I hold what you are saying to apply here.

Inasmuch as a concubine does not acquire the personal status of a wife (eshet ish: Tur EH 26; Sh. Ar., EH 26:1), she has no ketubbah; therefore, in accordance with the rule providing that the "terms and conditions of the ketubbah [tena'ei ketubbah] follow the [prescribed] ketubbah" (Ket. 54b; Rashi ibid. S.V. tena'ei ketubbah) she does not acquire any of the wife's pecuniary rights – especially she is not entitled to maintenance – as all those rights stem from the ketubbah. Nor does living with a man as his concubine create a kinship as an impediment to marriage between herself and any of the man's relatives, or between the man and her relatives, as would be the case if she would be considered to be his wife (Rosh, Resp. no. 32:1; Oẓar ha-Posekim, EH 26, n. 3). For the same reason there is no need in principle for her to obtain a get (see *Divorce ) in order to be permitted to marry any other man (Oẓar ha-Posekim, loc. cit.; Sefer ha-Tashbeẓ 3:47). However in the opinion of some of the posekim, for the sake of appearances, in view of the parties having lived together, the matter should be approached stringently and the woman should not be permitted to marry another man without obtaining a prior "get out of stringency" (get me ḥumrah) from the man with whom she has lived; but whenever the latter's refusal to grant her the get is likely to entail the risk of her becoming an *agunah , she may certainly be permitted to marry without getting such get (Oẓar ha-Posekim, EH 26, n. 3). Moreover, the status of the mother does not impair the personal status of children born of the union, nor their rights of inheritance according to law (Rashba, Resp. vol. 4, no. 314).

When it came time to divide, the father’s estate was apportioned into equal shares. Assigning specific shares to each heir was likely done by casting lots. Deut 21:17 suggests that typically the eldest son received two shares and other sons one each. A father could, by virtue of a testament, designate a younger son as the “firstborn” and reassign the right to a double share to him. He could not do so, however, if he was married to multiple women and had previously chosen to “hate” (probably meaning “demote”) the mother of the biologically oldest son. In this case, the oldest retained the status of firstborn (Deut 21:15-17).



Your statement also is usally backed up with

Judges 11:2

2Gilead's wife also bore him sons; and when his wife's sons grew up, they drove Jephthah away, saying to him, “You shall not inherit anything in our father's house; for you are the son of another woman.”

Jephthah was the son of a prostitute.
That is fascinating @Nikud, thankyou. I'd like to have a rough go at translating the core point there into English and a modern context, if I may, removing all the hebrew words like ketubah, for the benefit of readers and so you can check that I've got this right.

Basically,
  • a woman who enters the family with formal contractual arrangements (marriage contracts, documents denoting inheritance etc) is a "wife".
  • a woman who moves in without such formal contracts (or with fewer contracts) is a "concubine"
If so, this actually aligns quite well with modern practice, and fits fairly seamlessly into a modern context. Wife = wife, concubine = de-facto partner. Roughly.

The take-away message being that we must consider both formal wives and de-facto wives to be women who are to be treated as scripture tells us to treat our women. The only real difference may be when it comes to inheritance. We are able to treat both completely equally with regards to inheritance, as Jacob did. However, if because of the particular circumstances we leave different assets to each and their children, that is allowed for also and is not condemned, because we are to treat them fairly but not necessarily equally. For instance, a wife who spent 20 years building a business with you may inherit that business along with her sons, while you may choose to not give a de-facto second wife who came in later a share in that in your will for reasons of fairness.

For our purposes, we can take a second "wife" by giving her suitable written marriage contracts (not legal marriage paperwork, but a ketubah etc). Or we can take a second woman without such formal contracts, and that's also completely acceptable - but because she had no contracts, she'd have more limited inheritance rights. That's just a practical legal fact. And scripturally, a woman without such inheritance rights would be termed a "concubine" - which is just semantics and not derogatory in any way, it's just a word describing her real situation.
 
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So either that means 'biblical family' is meaningless or you've simply created two categories of wrong behavior: sinful and non-Biblical.
I'm not trying to put words in @ZecAustins mouth but I think the spirit of what he was getting was

All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not.

I like your thoughts on the subject Zec even though I do not agree with you.
 
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I'm not reconstructionist, but I'm all about audio books (and youtube videos), so I've just downloaded it and started listening. If anyone else is curious, it's 10 and a half hours. Thanks.
Nearly an hour in so far, and nothing yet about wives or concubines... Just a lot of cheerleading for Reconstructionists to change the culture, some potshots at Evangelicals, some flashbacks to my high school Civics course (textbook by by Gary North (edit: actualy, Demar), due to the home school correspondence curriculum we used), and some thoughts about how to completely restructure the UK education system around Christian schools... Ignoring the team sports in the beginning, its not bad stuff, but I hope this book eventually gets to the main point...
 
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So either that means 'biblical family' is meaningless or you've simply created two categories of wrong behavior: sinful and non-Biblical.

The Bible may be silent on HOW it's practice. But its not silent that faithful men of God practiced it. You say its 'not Biblical' since it wasn't clearly defined. But we could equally say it is perfectly Biblical (since faithful men did it without condemnation) and that the details have been left up to us to work out.

What are you nattering on about? There is only one standard, the one God laid out. He didn't lay out a standard foe concubines. He didn't lay out a standard for inheritance. As far as I can tell a marriage contract isn't even scriptural. It certainly isn't commanded or even mentioned that I can tell.

This is the great danger in filling in the supposed blanks. We find out we're just coloring outside the lines. Abraham slept with his sister and then tried to pawn her off on a couple of his buddies to save his own hide from an imagined threat. Just because a righteous man did something doesn't mean you should imitate it or that it was God's will. It just means it happened.

There is no explanation of concubinage made in scripture. We can't add one. No matter how you slice it, in God's eyes your concubine will just be a wife that you treat differently. And that's the real question to be asking here, not whether or not we can be having sex with some woman without having a permanent responsibility to God for her (which is what is at the heart of a lot of the concubine questions) or find a work around to marry an ineligible woman. How does God differentiate between these women? How is the relationship started and ended any differently than a marriage?

You have to remember that there isn't even a word for wife or marriage so that they can be differentiated from a concubine. There are simply women who are mastered. That's all the language tells us. So if there is no such thing as a wife how can we differentiate her from a concubine? And if there's no difference then who cares?

Now it's possible that a concubine is simply the bought girl who is taken as a wife but if that's so she actually has more protections than a wife as her "portion" can not be diminished.

The other thing to remember is that marriage is a metaphor for the relationship with Christ and Christ doesn't have concubines. He has brides. That should tell us all we need to know right there.
 
I agree with the general intent of your posts here Zec, in that we can't use any of this as an excuse for
having sex with some woman without having a permanent responsibility to God for her (which is what is at the heart of a lot of the concubine questions) or find a work around to marry an ineligible woman.
Although some people certainly discuss this topic in order to try and find such loopholes for their own pleasure, others like myself simply want to understand what scripture is actually talking about. Concubines are mentioned, but not defined in scripture. So what were the writers of scripture referring to when they chose to use the word "concubine" instead of "woman"? Why would they use that word, what does it mean? That's a genuinely interesting question. If scripture is inspired by God, which it is, then the words used are chosen for a reason and are worth pondering to deepen our understanding. There's no need to shut down the question entirely just because some people may be asking the question for the wrong reasons.

And there's nothing wrong with looking to extrabiblical sources in order to find definitions of words where these aren't defined within scripture. That's just sensible scholarship - provided the conclusions don't contradict scripture.

I agree a marriage contract isn't required in scripture. In fact, that's basically my point also. To restate what I said above in a different way, my take of Kevin's references is:
  • A man can take a woman, and has obligations to her outlined in scripture. No marriage contract is required.
  • However, if a man does make a contract of some form with his woman (as we are free to do also), he will be bound to those promises.
  • As a result, some women come into marriage with contracts (either state marriage contracts, or private contracts). Others begin marriage with no paperwork. If you look at all our wives you'll find examples of all three situations. This happens today just as it happened in ancient times, and is completely acceptable, it's just practical reality. It mainly affects property division at divorce or inheritance, which is a side-matter that does not change the validity of a marriage.
  • In the culture of the day, a woman without a contract appears to have been referred to sometimes as a "concubine" and sometimes as a "woman", while a woman with a contract was always called a "woman". This is simply a question of language, and does not change a woman's status as a truly legitimate wife.
  • A concubine is not a casual fling, there is no loophole here.
 
I'm not suggesting that we try and resurrect concubinage. Just try to understand it. I knew there were things wrong with the Church but it wasnt until I came to an understanding of Poly did I truley open my eyes up to scripture. Everything I learn brings new understanding of another part of scripture. Here's a little fuel on the fire.
Just because a righteous man did something doesn't mean you should imitate it or that it was God's will. It just means it happened.
That's an arguement that the monogamous only camp uses. There are only examples of men having more than one women. No defined law that says it's ok or explains the rights of a woman who us under a man's cover let alone multiple women. The only place scripture has laws governing the addition and some rights of a woman is in reference to the concubine. When it comes to marriage both monogamous and polygamous we are filling in the blanks.
This is the great danger in filling in the supposed blanks.
Whether we like to admit it or not. We all do it. Are you married? How did you do it? By scripture? Or by filling in the blanks?
 
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As far as i can tell, a Concubine is a wife that was given, and not bought with a bride price. In my estimation, most American wives are Concubines. But maybe I am over simplifying it.
 
I'm not suggesting that we try and resurrect concubinage. Just try to understand it. I knew there were things wrong with the Church but it wasnt until I came to an understanding of Poly did I truley open my eyes up to scripture. Everything I learn brings new understanding of another part of scripture. Here's a little fuel on the fire.

That's an arguement that the monogamous only camp uses. There are only examples of men having more than one women. No defined law that says it's ok or explains the rights of a woman who us under a man's cover let alone multiple women. The only place scripture has laws governing the addition and some rights of a woman is in reference to the concubine. When it comes to marriage both monogamous and polygamous we are filling in the blanks.
Whether we like to admit it or not. We all do it. Are you married? How did you do it? By scripture? Or by filling in the blanks?

I'm sorry Kevin but are to sure that polygyny is only referenced in relation to concubinage? I will have to check but I think that's not correct.

My problem with the while concubine debate is that it is always assumed that concubines are some God endorsed form of marriage and so the line of inquiry is to see how they fit into God's plan. No one starts with asking do they fit in at all. That's the first question. Explain to me how they are part of what God has ordained for marriage and I'll be happy to see how it should work.

God clearly ordains polygyny so that's a false comparison.
 
'm sorry Kevin but are to sure that polygyny is only referenced in relation to concubinage? I will have to check but I think that's not correct.
That's not what I said. What I said was the only time a law brouches the subject is in the one concerning concubines.

I agree in that I don't see how concubinage is endorsed by G-d but neither is it condemned.

God clearly ordains polygyny so that's a false comparison.
Please give me the scripture where it is clear with out it falling under or being precived to fall under

Just because a righteous man did something doesn't mean you should imitate it or that it was G-d's will. It just means it happened.

God endorsed form of marriage and so the line of inquiry is to see how they fit into God's plan.
HE may have endorsed it but did not give us direction on how to do it. You stated previously that if there is no definition or there are no regulations on how to do something we shouldn't do it or fill in the blanks.
There is simply no definition of it or regulations surrounding it.
 
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The take-away message being that we must consider both formal wives and de-facto wives to be women who are to be treated as scripture tells us to treat our women. The only real difference may be when it comes to inheritance.

That is a really good perspective. I'm trying to think if there were any other differences in scripture (save with respect to maid-servants) and I can't. Except dowry and its only mentioned in passing.

Basically,
  • a woman who enters the family with formal contractual arrangements (marriage contracts, documents denoting inheritance etc) is a "wife".
  • a woman who moves in without such formal contracts (or with fewer contracts) is a "concubine"
If so, this actually aligns quite well with modern practice, and fits fairly seamlessly into a modern context. Wife = wife, concubine = de-facto partner. Roughly.

You missed a really big piece of the practical difference between them in ancient cultures (inc. Hebrew) and that is dowry and bride price (two different things). They were very important and functioned as a sort of mashup of the modern practices of life insurance, alimony, and wedding gifts. Wives got those, concubines and maid-servants did not.

Another difference comes to under what conditions she could leave. Concubines potentially were free to leave as they pleased, unlike wives, or at least free of financial penalty should they leave. Unless they were a maid-servant, then they had to purchase their freedom. Its also possible a concubine might be able to leave with the children; a wife couldn't. But I'm less certain on that.

So when considering those aspects, all our 'wives' today are concubines. No dowry, no bride price, free to leave as they see fit, no contract, and inheritance by her children is optional. Mitigating against that view though are prenups (though often tossed out) and the unspoken contract of secular law and alimony.
 
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