That argument does not make logical sense.
If the couple in Exodus 22 are married, then her father would have no authority over her. The fact that he does is proof positive that the girl is still a daughter, not a wife.
If she were a wife, her husband would be the one with that authority. He is not her husband yet.
If you read this verse in an interlinear Bible, it should make it rather clear. The literal does not assume a marriage has already occurred at all. There is no clause suggesting that they are married if the father says nothing, it is within the meaning that the man might reject her, or never want her in the first place.
There are, of course, other laws that deal with such a man.
But, in this case, it does assume that the couple is interested in such and makes clear that the father can say no. In fact, this verse is a nail in the coffin of the idea that sex equals marriage. It seems to have been written to directly refute the idea that "I have taken her, she is my wife now". She is not a wife, until the covenant is agreed upon. You are right to say there is no mention of a covenant before they have sex. But there is also no mention of them being married afterwards. The verse simply says that they had sex. And then affirms that her father may "refuse to give her to him as a wife".
Is she the man's wife? No. If she were his wife, then she would be his wife.
But the verse says the father may, after they have had sex, still refuse to give her as a wife.
The man is guilty of fornication. Incestuous relationships are also fornication. Sex with a prostitute is fornication. Homosexual sex is fornication. One night stands are fornication. Any sex between two people who are ineligible for marriage, for any reason, is fornication (and perhaps more). Any sex between two people without a marital covenant is fornication.
There is no verse in scripture that suggests sex alone immediately means marriage, or is sufficient.
If the couple in Exodus 22 are married, then her father would have no authority over her. The fact that he does is proof positive that the girl is still a daughter, not a wife.
If she were a wife, her husband would be the one with that authority. He is not her husband yet.
If you read this verse in an interlinear Bible, it should make it rather clear. The literal does not assume a marriage has already occurred at all. There is no clause suggesting that they are married if the father says nothing, it is within the meaning that the man might reject her, or never want her in the first place.
There are, of course, other laws that deal with such a man.
But, in this case, it does assume that the couple is interested in such and makes clear that the father can say no. In fact, this verse is a nail in the coffin of the idea that sex equals marriage. It seems to have been written to directly refute the idea that "I have taken her, she is my wife now". She is not a wife, until the covenant is agreed upon. You are right to say there is no mention of a covenant before they have sex. But there is also no mention of them being married afterwards. The verse simply says that they had sex. And then affirms that her father may "refuse to give her to him as a wife".
Is she the man's wife? No. If she were his wife, then she would be his wife.
But the verse says the father may, after they have had sex, still refuse to give her as a wife.
The man is guilty of fornication. Incestuous relationships are also fornication. Sex with a prostitute is fornication. Homosexual sex is fornication. One night stands are fornication. Any sex between two people who are ineligible for marriage, for any reason, is fornication (and perhaps more). Any sex between two people without a marital covenant is fornication.
There is no verse in scripture that suggests sex alone immediately means marriage, or is sufficient.