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Prostitution?

PPS> One more important point. Not ONLY is Tamar NOT a 'zonah' (and 'more righteous' than Judah was at that point) - she becomes with him the progenitor of the line of kings, and David himself.
 
If there was a prohibition to prostitution, Genesis 38 would have been the perfect place to bring condemnation however it was not. Operating under trickery Tamar was righteous. Is then trickery(deception) allowed as a practice when the result is blessed by God? Is this an example of "ends justify the means"? to follow that, why did Judah never father any more children with her as he obviously was her husband? Seems rather mean but I look for consistency in scripture and this seem incongruent.
 
Except Tamar was not a prostitute - she just dressed like one. She never actually engaged in prostitution - she didn't even accept payment. She only ever slept with one husband during his lifetime, she never committed infidelity in any form, only marriage (as a virgin and then as a widow). She had a unique relationship with Judah, which we could analyse in more detail, but it wasn't prostitution. That was just a costume she put on once.

Just because you dress like a nurse to entice a man to bed doesn't make you a nurse. :)
 
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Trannies aren't women just because they dress up like one. Tamar wasn't a prostitute even if someone thought she looked like one.
 
My wife got dressed up, wore a veil, got a bracelet and ring, and a goat before we did the deed. And?
 
I was looking for an example of prostitution being sinful somewhere. Now I believe it is but cant find basis for it. Isaiah 3 talks about the stinky girls and how they will clamor for someone to own them in Isaiah 4. In my mind it looks just like prostitution. Do we embrace chapter 4 without chapter 3?
 
I was looking for an example of prostitution being sinful somewhere. Now I believe it is but cant find basis for it. Isaiah 3 talks about the stinky girls and how they will clamor for someone to own them in Isaiah 4. In my mind it looks just like prostitution. Do we embrace chapter 4 without chapter 3?
Forming one flesh isn’t sinful. It’s how you break one flesh that causes sin:
 
Forming one flesh isn’t sinful. It’s how you break one flesh that causes sin:
Overly simplistic and incorrect. Adultery and whoredom are both sins and both are one flesh. There are lists of one flesh unions listed as sin.
 
Overly simplistic and incorrect. Adultery and whoredom are both sins and both are one flesh. There are lists of one flesh unions listed as sin.
But adultery breaks a one-flesh union in that it is treachery against the one-flesh relationship with the woman's husband, and it is that which makes it a sin.

While whoredom, again, is the repeated leaving of a man to find a new man. If she just made a one-flesh union with one man she wouldn't be a whore.

It certainly is a highly simplistic way of looking at it, but that doesn't mean it's wrong.
 
Forming one flesh isn’t sinful. It’s how you break one flesh that causes sin:

But adultery breaks a one-flesh union in that it is treachery against the one-flesh relationship with the woman's husband, and it is that which makes it a sin.

While whoredom, again, is the repeated leaving of a man to find a new man. If she just made a one-flesh union with one man she wouldn't be a whore.

It certainly is a highly simplistic way of looking at it, but that doesn't mean it's wrong.

How are you guys using the word “break”? Can you define and explain? We could be talking past each other.
 
I'm interpreting it in the sense of "betray". Break the commitment that one flesh requires.

As I understand it you cannot actually stop being one flesh with someone, not even a divorce or adultery does that. But you can break the obligations you have to the one you are one flesh with.
 
So betraying the commitment sounds like you are using the definition under (A) rather than (B) correct?

A. Break - Violate, transgress, breach
B. Break - Void, terminate, separate, cancel

My concern is a casual reader might misinterpret both of you men to be using the term with (B) as the definition.

What @FollowingHim said. There’s nothing wrong with simple.
There certainly can be something wrong with simple. If it's unclear or miscommunicates the wrong thing. It's far too easy to fall prey to oversimplification fallacy or causal reductionism. Not that you would ever do so 😜
 
As I understand it you cannot actually stop being one flesh with someone, not even a divorce or adultery does that.

That's exactly right. Once you've been with someone you can't undo it. It's forever.
 
There are a lot of questions I'd like to ask here. Yup, a lot of questions. :p
Yeah...
This how it always works

I leave for five minutes and come back to conversations involving sheep, goats, transgressions and...uhm...stinky girls!?! Whuuut?

So...on an entirely unrelated note, girl hitches her wagon to this train has a good chance at a good looking heifer. None of these undersized ruminants at my party
 
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