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Response to Mike Winger's Train Wreck on Polygamy and Divorce
- Thread starter PeteR
- Start date
Nice try.
New thread alert!
It’s pretty simple.
He is called the Son of God a couple of dozen times, but not once is he called God the Son.
Only by using a big freaking shoehorn whilst looking through the wrong end of a telescope can you get God the Son out of “Word”
So what do you believe "and the Word became flesh" refers to?
I don't have to show you the phrase "God the Son" or "the Trinity" in the Bible.
I'm content to show that the Son of God:
(1) He is God
(2) He is the Creator
(3) He raises the dead and gives eternal life
(4) He is Judge of everything
(5) He and the Father are One
(6) He is honored just as the Father is honored.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. " (John 1:1-3 NKJV)
"For as the Father raises the dead and gives life to them, even so the Son gives life to whom He will. For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son, that all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him." (John 5:21-23 NKJV)
"I and My Father are one.” (John 10:30 NKJV)
"Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM." (John 8:58 NKJV)
The Jews clearly understood that He just said that He was the One who spoke to Moses from the burning bush, the "I Am who I Am". That's why they tried to stone Him.
The Bible repeatedly tells us that "God will judge", yet in Matthew 5, Jesus tells us that He is Judge.
"Whoever denies the Son does not have the Father either; he who acknowledges the Son has the Father also." (1 John 2:23 NKJV)
The Greek word is logos. It means communication. The communication was with God and pertained to God, and the communication became flesh.
Yeshua was the walking talking present with us expression of YHWH.
Why would he say he had spoken only YHWH's words if they were his?
Why would he say "Not my will but thine be done"?
Yeshua was the walking talking present with us expression of YHWH.
Why would he say he had spoken only YHWH's words if they were his?
Why would he say "Not my will but thine be done"?
The Son is not the Father (or the Holy Spirit). The Father is not the Son (or the Holy Spirit).
The Father is the "I AM". The Son is the "I AM". The Holy Spirit is the "I AM".
I want it to mean what it was meant to (So if I'm ignorant of it's true meaning I would like to understand).
So then would your interpretation be that the word being made flesh refers to him speaking into creation? If not then I'm lost.
Are you saying that "the Word" doesn't refer to Yeshua?
Just as my body is not my soul, my soul is not my body, and my spirit is also separate (but in my case is not of myself; it is either of God or of the devil). But, any one part is me.
God created the physical to be an image of the spiritual so that through what is visible we may see that which is invisible. He is also the Creator of fractals. He likes to put images within images. That is why we also have the male imaging Him in a further way.
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Isaiah 42 seems to be another relevant passage.
"I am the LORD (Yahweh), that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another," (verse 8)
Yet the Father is pleased to have the Son honored just as He is honored (sharing His glory) according to Jesus in John 5.
"I am the LORD (Yahweh), that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another," (verse 8)
Yet the Father is pleased to have the Son honored just as He is honored (sharing His glory) according to Jesus in John 5.
There is certainly a real debate regarding what language Matthew was first written in.
However there is no debate that "most of the New Testament" was not written in Greek. It was all written for wide distribution, and Greek was the most widely spoken language at the time, much of the church did not speak Hebrew, so at least the vast majority of the NT (if not all) was written in Greek for obvious practical reasons.
@steve has long held a minority opinion on the spiritual identity of Jesus. I don't see any point in debating that with him, as he says nobody is interested in changing their minds. If someone else has no opinion on this matter, seriously has questions about this, and wants to hear both sides, that would be a different matter and a potentially profitable conversation.
Remember that to be saved we must simply accept Jesus as Lord, and accept that God raised him from the dead. Lord does not mean God, it means Master. Anyone who accepts Jesus as the master God has appointed over their life is saved, so I am pleased to acknowledge @steve as my brother, regardless of what personal views I might hold on this matter.
Remember that to be saved we must simply accept Jesus as Lord, and accept that God raised him from the dead. Lord does not mean God, it means Master. Anyone who accepts Jesus as the master God has appointed over their life is saved, so I am pleased to acknowledge @steve as my brother, regardless of what personal views I might hold on this matter.
Let’s go back to the original words that were spoken.
Does anyone actually think that the angel that came to Mary was speaking in Greek?
That Yeshua gave the Beatitudes in Greek?
That the disciples in Acts were talking to each other in Greek?
Yes, when Paul was travelling up through places such as Thessalonica.
