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Why is Divorce so easy in the Bible?

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Can you define what a non-Israelite is?
This is a point many are confused on. The term means a descendant, and since YHWH sowed Israel through all the earth, and said through the prophet that their seed would inherit the nations and be like the sand of the sea, there are probably a whole lot more Israelites out there than people realize. Another thing that causes people to not recognize them as Israelites is that since Antioch believers in Yeshua/Jesus have been called Christians no matter what family of the earth they are from.
I would say odds are better that someone who is Christian IS israelite at this point.
 
Well one way it can be closed for all offences is if one dies, which seems to Paul's specific argument in Romans 7.
But the Law itself isn’t closed or fulfilled.
Just closed for that person.
 
Can you define what a non-Israelite is?
Lol, no. At least not without getting lambasted by every stakeholder in any of the myriad of Hebrew Roots offshoots. This is quite the contentious point, and for some people the only point.

If I was being honest I would say that non-Israelites would be anyone not descended directly from Jacob. There is a possible exception for someone whose family has been faithful Torah keepers for 10 generations I think. I have heard someone say that anyone who takes on the Law is a part of Israel but not able to marry into priestly families. It get's very thick and extremely emotional at times.

Obviously I don't buy any of the replacement theories and I don't take any stand on anyone's claims to be one of the Lost Tribes. There is simply no way to know for sure which means there's not way to prove or disprove it and frankly it's not worth fighting over.
 
Lol, no. At least not without getting lambasted by every stakeholder in any of the myriad of Hebrew Roots offshoots. This is quite the contentious point, and for some people the only point.

If I was being honest I would say that non-Israelites would be anyone not descended directly from Jacob. There is a possible exception for someone whose family has been faithful Torah keepers for 10 generations I think. I have heard someone say that anyone who takes on the Law is a part of Israel but not able to marry into priestly families. It get's very thick and extremely emotional at times.

Obviously I don't buy any of the replacement theories and I don't take any stand on anyone's claims to be one of the Lost Tribes. There is simply no way to know for sure which means there's not way to prove or disprove it and frankly it's not worth fighting over.

I'm thinking there is an easier way,

Acts 10:34-35
34Then Peter began to speak: “I now realize how true it is that God does not show favoritism 35but accepts from every nation the one who fears him and does what is right.

Galatians 3:7
Understand, then, that those who have faith are children of Abraham.

Romans 10:9
If you declare with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
 
Good afternoon, ya'll. I have been reading this thread with interest for quite some time but have had nothing to contribute. I did, though, run across something today that I'd read previously -- and I believe it's relevant to some of the distinctions ya'll are trying to discern related to Israel, the law, justice and grace -- so I'm going to bring the whole article into this post. My thinking is that it's important to keep not only general topical context in mind but where a concern fits within the historical context of Divine Word.

I mean no disrespect to anyone's particular take on Scripture or to anyone's positions on practices one considers essential in practicing their differing religions. It isn't my point to challenge any of that, even though certain of such things are addressed in the lists. I do believe, though, that it is important to consider the historical context, especially in relation to words spoken by Jesus or Paul. Jesus's ministry was strictly to his fellow Jews, and Paul's started out that way. The Acts is a chronicle of the historical aftermath of the Resurrection, and through much of it Paul had not yet had his encounter with Christ on the road to Damascus -- and certainly hadn't yet been authorized to reveal The Mystery. His ministry began almost solely focused on his fellow Jews, but eventually his ministry was almost solely focused on Gentiles. When Paul said what really does matter when making pronouncements about what rules we're to follow or what constitutes fulfillment.

Tavender's article was originally published in 2015 at spiritualblessings.org. I have refrained from messing with any of the context, but I did clean up some grammatical stuff.

So, without further ado . . .

*************

Different Conditions Before and After Acts 28

by – David Tavender


In this article, the different conditions in operation before and after Acts 28 will be summarized.

Those before Acts 28 are recorded in the book of Acts and the epistles written during that time, while those after Acts 28 are to be found in the last seven letters of Paul: Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1 & 2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon.

Here, then, are some of the differences – before and after Acts 28 – with Scripture references for further study.

National Status (No. 1)

Before Acts 28:

There were two distinct orders of believers. These were called “Jews that believe” and “Gentiles that believe” (Romans 1:16; 2:9-10). There were different rules of life and requirements for these two groups of believers (Acts 15:19-20).

After Acts 28:

No such distinction exists among God’s saints today. God’s rule for one believer is God’s rule for all. “Gentiles (ie, nations) are fellowheirs” (Ephesians 2:14-15; 3:6; Colossians 2:14).

National Status (No. 2)

Before Acts 28:

The blessings that came to the Gentiles were related to God’s desires and purposes for Israel. They were given to the Gentiles in order to provoke Israel to jealousy (Romans 11:11).

After Acts 28:


The blessings that belong to the Gentiles now have no relationship to Israel. Believers of all nations are blessed independently of Israel.

National Status (No. 3)

Before Acts 28:

The gospel of salvation was to the Jew first. In each city that was preached to, Jews were given the first opportunity to believe (Acts 3:25-26; 13:5, 14, 45-46; 14:1; 17:1-2, 10; 28:17).

After Acts 28:

This gospel is no longer to the Jew first. All national priorities are abolished. Gentile believers become equal with Jewish believers in every way. A literal translation of Ephesians 3:6 is that Gentiles are joint-heirs, in a joint-body, and joint-partakers of the promise in Christ by the gospel.

National Status (No. 4)

Before Acts 28:

There was an advantage in being a Jew, and circumcision was profitable (Romans 3:1-2; Acts 16:3).

After Acts 28:

There is no advantage in being a Jew, and there is no profit in circumcision (Philippians 3:5-8).

The Mystery

Before Acts 28:

The mystery (or secret) of Ephesians was not yet revealed (Ephesians 3:3, 5).

After Acts 28:

The mystery that believers from all nations are now fellow heirs is revealed (Ephesians 3:5-6). Previously it had been hidden (Colossians 1:26). The church of the mystery is a new creation (Ephesians 2:15); therefore, the term “mystery” is never used of the church during the Acts period.

The Body

Before Acts 28:


The term “body” was simply an illustration of the groups of Christians within each locality. The relationship of Christ as head of the body did not yet exist, as shown by I Corinthians 12. Here, various members of the body were compared with the eyes, ears, nose, etc – i.e. parts of the head (Romans 12:4-5, I Corinthians 12:12-20). Note that the Greek of I Corinthians 12:27 says “you are a body [not “the” body] of Christ”.

After Acts 28:

The Head is Christ and the Body is the group of believers (Ephesians 1:22-23; 4:15-16; 5:23; Colossians 1:18; 2:19). The term “The Body of Christ” is now the title of the church today, and not just an illustration as had previously been the case.

Israel’s Hope

Before Acts 28:

Israel’s hope of the Kingdom was active right up until Acts 28 (Acts 28:20).

After Acts 28:

There is no mention of Israel’s hope, because plans for Israel as a nation have been temporarily laid aside.


Disruption of the World

Before Acts 28:

The hope of believers is linked with ages “since [or from] the disruption of the world” (Matthew 25:34).

After Acts 28:

The hope of present believers is linked with ages “before the disruption of the world” (Ephesians 1:4).

Grace

Before Acts 28:

God’s administration was not one of pure grace. Some of His acts were gracious, others were acts designed to punish. People died for sinful actions (Acts 5:1-11; I Corinthians 11:30).

After Acts 28:

God’s Secret Administration is one of pure grace. All of His acts are gracious. All direct judgment against human sin is in abeyance (Ephesians 3:2). Every blessing that comes to us is the result of God acting in grace – not as a result of our earning.

Covenants

Before Acts 28:

Every covenant that God had made with Abraham’s seed was in operation. Some of the blessings that came to them were the result of God keeping a covenant (Acts 3:25-26; Romans 9:4).

After Acts 28:

No covenant is in operation, because the people to whom they were made (i.e. Israel) have no standing before God (Ephesians 2:12).

Ordinances

Before Acts 28:

Ceremonies such as water baptism, the Sabbath and the Lord’s Supper (Passover) were observed.

After Acts 28:

Observance of these ordinances, which were for Israel, are now not necessary (Colossians 2:13-17).

Baptism

Before Acts 28:

At least two forms of baptism were in operation – water and spirit (Acts 2:1-4; 8:14-17; 10:44-48).

After Acts 28:

Only one baptism is now in operation – that of being identified with Christ (Colossians 2:12; Ephesians 4:5).

Miracles

Before Acts 28:

Belief in Christ as Savior was confirmed by visible, miraculous signs (Mark 16:16-18; Hebrews 2:4; Romans 15:18-19). Miracles were a sign to Israel (Acts 2:22).

After Acts 28:

Believers are no longer accompanied by miracles. This is because the nation of Israel has been temporarily set aside. There are no references to miracles occurring after Acts 28.

Healing

Before Acts 28:

Paul could heal by his word, his touch, and even a handkerchief (Acts 19:12; 28:8-9).

After Acts 28:

Paul was now no longer able to heal (I Timothy 5:23; II Timothy 4:20).

Content of Writings

Before Acts 28:

In his messages, Paul only declared that which was also covered by the writings of Moses and the prophets in some way. “It is written” occurs forty-odd times in Paul’s early epistles (Acts 26:22).

After Acts 28:

Paul declared truths revealed to him about which Moses and the prophets knew nothing. This is because, in previous ages, they were “not made known” (Ephesians 3:5,9). The term “it is written” occurs not once.

OT References

Before Acts 28:

Quotations from the Old Testament and references to Old Testament people, places and events abound. Because Israel as a nation is still the center in God’s plans, there are many references to the Old Testament which feature Israel.

After Acts 28:

In the later epistles, there are very few quotations from the OT, and of this number, not one can be said to teach the mystery revealed to Paul. (Ephesians 4:8; 5:14,31; 6:2; I Timothy 5:18).

Word Occurrences

Before Acts 28:

Words and phrases associated with Israel and its part in God’s plans are very common. Such phrases include: Jew, Israel, Israelite, Abraham, Moses, miracles, tongues, healing, prophecy, circumcision, and others.

After Acts 28:

These terms are virtually non-existent. The few times they do occur, they emphasize the fact that there is no difference between the Jewish and Gentile believers. (Colossians 3:11; Ephesians 2:11-12; Philippians 3:3-9; Titus 1:14; II Timothy 3:8).

* * *

The above show differences in the way God has dealt with His people before and after the Acts 28 dividing line, and how the relevant Scriptures reflect this. It is our hope that we may all come to a better understanding of the unique and blessed place of the church under this current dispensation of God’s immeasurable grace.
 
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Note that the Greek of I Corinthians 12:27 says “you are a body [not “the” body] of Christ”.

I know that you simply copied in the article from your source but I'm curious if you can explain this statement. This is different from the kjv so is this mistranslated in your opinion? If so please explain. That was the one that stuck out to me immediately.
 
I'm thinking there is an easier way,

Acts 10:34-35
34Then Peter began to speak: “I now realize how true it is that God does not show favoritism 35but accepts from every nation the one who fears him and does what is right.

Galatians 3:7
Understand, then, that those who have faith are children of Abraham.

Romans 10:9
If you declare with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
All of that is very true in it's proper context. Let me refine my definition a little bit. An Israelite is one who has an inheritance in the Land of Israel given by God to the Israelites ancestors. Obviously then a non-Israelite is one whose ancestors were not given an inheritance in the Land of Israel.
 
Hebrews 6:16-18

13 Now when G-d made His promise to Avraham—since He could swear by no one greater, He swore by Himself,

14 saying, “Surely I will bless you, and surely I will multiply you.”

15 And so after waiting patiently, Avraham reached the promise.

16 For people swear by someone greater; and the oath, as confirmation, is an end to all their disputing.

17 In the same way G-d, determining to point out more clearly to the heirs of the promise the unchanging nature of His purpose, guaranteed it with an oath.

18 So by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible for G-d to lie, we who have fled for refuge might have strong encouragement to take hold of the hope set before us.

Hebrews 11:8-9

8 By faith, Avraham, when he was called, obeyed to go out to the place which he was to receive for an inheritance. He went out, not knowing where he went.

9 by faith, he lived as an alien in the land of promise
, as in a land not his own, dwelling in tents, with Yitzchak and Ya`akov, the heirs with him of the same promise.

Genesis 12:1-3

12 Then Adonai said to Avram, “Get going out from your land, and from your relatives, and from your father’s house, to the land that I will show you.

2 My heart’s desire is to make you into a great nation, to bless you, to make your name great so that you may be a blessing.

3 My desire is to bless those who bless you,
but whoever curses you I will curse, and in you all the families of the earth will be blessed.

The carnale promise was a homeland many decendents. This is the carnal inheritance of Avraham. G-d kept this promise. The spiritual promise was to be the father of many nations full filled through the seed promised to him and came to fruitation through the line of David. The Nazaret, the offshoot, the root that by prophecy the gentile would be grafted onto, made part of, fullfilling the promise to Avraham to be the father of many nations and the prophecy of salvation a shared inheritance.

----------------------------------------------------------------------
Book: Dividing Line: Acts 28:28, by David Tavender, President of the B.B.F.A.

What Does the B.B.F.A. Believe?

It is impossible to state all of the Fellowship’s beliefs in a short article like this, especially since views on some points of doctrine are varied. However, the following are points which we see as being fundamental to our Fellowship:

– the belief in the full inspiration of Scripture;
– the belief in the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ;
– the belief in all sufficiency of His One Atoning Sacrifice;
– the belief that the Scriptures must be “rightly divided”. An integral part of this last point is the belief that the Church which is Christ’s body, did not commence until after Acts 28:28."

The Berean Bible Fellowship of Australia
P.O. Box 3141 Glendale, 2285
NSW Australia.

… or click here to send an email to the B.B.F.A. Committee.

My opinion

David Tavender tries to make sense of G-ds will according to his own understanding by misquoting scripture, using it out of context and erasing G-ds promise by nullifying the importance of anything before Acts 28:28 with a conjured line. Through this self dividing line he states that after Acts 28:28 that speaking in tongues, performing miraculous healings, or frequently receiving inspired visions or prophecies from the Lord stopped. His evidence they didn't do it at his mainstream Orthodox Christian church he attended before ditching it to create a nondenominational ministry $$$$ and he didn't beleive that when it happened at other churchs it was real. In short after Acts 28:28 G-d changed and is no longer active. Before the G-ds nature didn't change statement pops up, G-ds nature includes working miracles in his people's lives and to keep tabernacle with them.
 
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The term “body” was simply an illustration of the groups of Christians within each locality. The relationship of Christ as head of the body did not yet exist, as shown by I Corinthians 12. Here, various members of the body were compared with the eyes, ears, nose, etc – i.e. parts of the head (Romans 12:4-5, I Corinthians 12:12-20). Note that the Greek of I Corinthians 12:27 says “you are a body [not “the” body] of Christ”.

I know that you simply copied in the article from your source but I'm curious if you can explain this statement. This is different from the kjv so is this mistranslated in your opinion? If so please explain. That was the one that stuck out to me immediately.
Hi @Pacman. Yes, you're correct; I just copied in the article from another source. I like it, as I see it as a useful outline of the dispensational line related to Acts 28:28, but at the same time I'm not endorsing it as being totally gospel or anything.

I will add, though, that while I was reading it today the one thing that struck me as likely being inaccurate translation was the same thing you've addressed here about "a body" versus "the body." I don't even have a copy of the KJV, because my historical research on its translation project convinces me that the motivations behind creating that particular translation were far from righteous, but I am familiar with it and am not surprised that it says "the body" in the KJV. So I did some research on how I Cor. 12:27 is translated in various Bibles. Strong's Concordance states that the Greek word pronounced 'soma' means 'a body,' but at Bible Hub most of the concordances say 'the body,' and when citing the various New Testament verses where 'soma' is found, many more are translated as 'the body' than are translated as 'a body' -- and it's the same word 'soma' in Ephesians 1:23 referenced by Tavender, although in Eph. 1:23 it's preceded by the Greek 'to,' which is translated as 'the.'

I first looked at the CLNT: 'the body'. It's also 'the body' in Dabhar, Rotherham, Young, the Peshitta, the American Standard, the Complete Jewish Bible ('the body of the Messiah'), and the Berean Study Bible. Ferrar Fenton, which is also called The New Testament in Modern English, is the only translation I have that used 'a body;' it reads, "and you are a body for Christ, and participating members."

I would tend toward interpreting this as indicating that the difference between 'a body' and 'the body' is simply one of Tavender's weakest points, because it almost seems like a distinction without distinction.
 
My Greek is very sketchy so someone like @frederick may correct me, but this doesn't say `a body' or `the body'. It just says `you are body of Christ'. Translators add either the or a to make it make gramatical sense in English.
Exactly. Thanks for making this point. I woke up this morning with that thought, which I had meant to write in yesterday's post. And, again, it seems like almost a technicality to define the distinction between "the body" and "a body" or "body" as something with significant meaning.
 
this doesn't say `a body' or `the body'. It just says `you are body of Christ'. Translators add either the or a to make it make gramatical sense in English.
You are quite correct. There is no definite article in the Greek text so it is the translator who tries to determine whether the English definite or indefinite article is more appropriate.
 
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