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Meat Thy Covenant Wife: Malachi 2:14

The Revolting Man

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There has been a development in the ongoing Covenant Wars. For years now there has been an ongoing debate about what is the minimum conditions necessary to form a “marriage”.

The consensus has always been that a covenant of some kind was required. A small but dedicated band of thrill seekers and truth lovers have heroically waged a guerilla campaign against this. The basis for our principled stance was that nowhere in scripture was any description of marriage ever connected to any covenant. A covenant was never commanded or even described in that context and no parameters were ever shown for what should be a valid covenant.

That has changed now. Some how for all these years there was a verse lurking in the background that was missed by both sides. @frederick has brought to our attention Malachi 2:14.

14 Yet ye say, Wherefore? Because the LORD hath been witness between thee and the wife of thy youth, against whom thou hast dealt treacherously: yet is she thy companion, and the wife of thy covenant.

This is the King James Version. Young’s Literal says:

14 And ye have said, 'Wherefore?' Because Jehovah hath testified between thee And the wife of thy youth, That thou hast dealt treacherously against her, And she thy companion, and thy covenant-wife.

The NASB95 phrases it similarly.

14 “Yet you say, ‘For what reason?’ Because the LORD has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant.

I checked the leprechaun book and the word is indeed in the text. It wasn’t a translation decision. So at first blush it seems like we have a description of a wife having a covenant. This is a big, fat, theology shaking deal.

As usual there are caveats; this is one reference, it’s not a command and we’re still not told what would constitute a valid covenant; a thing on which the death penalty could hinge.

There’s another big problem though. Verse 14 isn’t the only verse in the chapter. It is in fact part of a fascinating passage that has to start at least in verse 11. Which we will do now. For ease of reading I’m using the NASB95 here. We’re entering the weeds in 3…2…1…

11 “Judah has dealt treacherously, and an abomination has been committed in Israel and in Jerusalem; for Judah has profaned the sanctuary of the LORD fnwhich He loves and has married the daughter of a foreign god.
12 “As for the man who does this, may the LORD cut off from the tents of Jacob everyone who awakes and answers, or who presents fnan offering to the LORD of hosts.
13 ¶ “This is fnanother thing you do: you cover the altar of the LORD with tears, with weeping and with groaning, because He no longer regards the fnoffering or accepts it with favor from your hand.
14 “Yet you say, ‘For what reason?’ Because the LORD has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant.

There is so much going on here that I can’t wrap my mind around all of it. But let’s look at some of the bigger elements. We are dealing with the kingdom of Judah and weirdly Judah is being represented as a husband. Normally Judah is represented as a wife. Alright, what is Judah doing? Judah married the daughter of a strange god.

This is also an usual switch. Normally when Judah (and Israel more broadly) is represented whoring after strange gods the gods are male and Judah is represented as an adulterous wife. In this case the relationship is presented as being valid. I don’t know how to interpret this.

In the rest of the passage God expresses His anger at this and rejects the sacrifices because of it. Then He indicts Judah with the extraordinary charge of dealing treacherously with the wife of his youth, his covenant wife.

It seems for all the world to me that the covenant wife is set in contrast to the daughter of the strange god in verse 11. It almost seems like the wife of Judah’s youth, the covenant wife, is in fact the Sinai Covenant.

Someone help me out here. We’re definitely dealing with a metaphor; the ultimate purpose of marriage is as a metaphor though so that doesn’t lessen the passage’s application.

Am I right? Is the covenant wife actually The Covenant?

I am not trying to wriggle out of applying the verse to forming a marriage but I have to be able wrap my mind around this extraordinary passage in order to do so.
 
I first started typing this in response to a post on the previous thread, as follows:
Sure. The KJB says in Malachi 2:14 "the wife of thy covenant. This is the same covenant spoken of in v5 and 8. The context of this passage is the Israelites were putting away a fellow covenant believer and marrying a heathen woman. Now there's nothing wrong with making covenants, I'm just saying a covenant is not what marries you to someone. Thanks.
Thankyou for explaining.

I think you are misinterpreting this, because there are at least three covenants discussed in that chapter.
The first is God's covenant with the tribe of Levi. This is called "my covenant" (v4 and v5), and "the covenant of Levi" (v8).
The second is God's covenant with the people of Israel. This is called "the covenant of our fathers" (v10).
The third is the covenant between a man and his wife. This is called "thy covenant".

I see no reason to take every single time the word "covenant" appears in that chapter and assume it is speaking about the same covenant.

It is clear that the covenant spoken of in v8 is different to the covenant in v10. The first is limited to Levi, the second is for all Israel. Both times these are covenants between God and a specific group of people. Can we agree these are two different covenants?

So what is the covenant in 2:14? Is it the same covenant as in v8, as in v10, or a third covenant?

The most natural reading to me is that the men in question have betrayed the wife of their youth by divorcing them in favour of heathen women ("the daughter of a strange god").

The covenant in question is "thy covenant" - it is not "my covenant" (God's covenant) as in earlier verses, but very clearly (in the original languages also) "your covenant" - a covenant between humans, not with God. A marriage covenant made between humans.

This says to me that marriage covenants exist. It does not prove they are necessary (it is one verse), but it does refer to them as something that is real and exists - and that which breaking is treacherous and sinul.
 
I first started typing this in response to a post on the previous thread, as follows:

Thankyou for explaining.

I think you are misinterpreting this, because there are at least three covenants discussed in that chapter.
The first is God's covenant with the tribe of Levi. This is called "my covenant" (v4 and v5), and "the covenant of Levi" (v8).
The second is God's covenant with the people of Israel. This is called "the covenant of our fathers" (v10).
The third is the covenant between a man and his wife. This is called "thy covenant".

I see no reason to take every single time the word "covenant" appears in that chapter and assume it is speaking about the same covenant.

It is clear that the covenant spoken of in v8 is different to the covenant in v10. The first is limited to Levi, the second is for all Israel. Both times these are covenants between God and a specific group of people. Can we agree these are two different covenants?

So what is the covenant in 2:14? Is it the same covenant as in v8, as in v10, or a third covenant?

The most natural reading to me is that the men in question have betrayed the wife of their youth by divorcing them in favour of heathen women ("the daughter of a strange god").

The covenant in question is "thy covenant" - it is not "my covenant" (God's covenant) as in earlier verses, but very clearly (in the original languages also) "your covenant" - a covenant between humans, not with God. A marriage covenant made between humans.

This says to me that marriage covenants exist. It does not prove they are necessary (it is one verse), but it does refer to them as something that is real and exists - and that which breaking is treacherous and sinul.
But read verse 11. Verse 11 is aimed at Judah as a whole, not individuals. There is a national sin that has happened, so much so that God has turned away from the sacrifices. And the daughter of the strange god is singular, as is the strange god. Verse 14 uses similar singular language.

And why the gender swap? Why is Judah suddenly a husband and why is the relationship with the daughter of the strange god apparently a legitimate one?
 
Maybe I should have started in verse 10. Or maybe the question is whether or not the passage is one consistent thought from verse 10 or 11 through to 14? Maybe 14 stands alone?
 
This reminds me of Paul more than anything. It’s damn barber pole in motion. Everything is twisting while it’s turning. Can anyone agree that is some kind of metaphor? Or is it strictly literal?
 
Why is Judah suddenly a husband and why is the relationship with the daughter of the strange god apparently a legitimate one?
I don't think the relationship with the daughter of the strange god is the legitimate one referred to as the wife of your covenant. I think the daughter of the strange god is the person whom the man is betraying the wife of his covenant by being with.

But I agree the metaphor keeps twisting and is hard to get a grip on.
 
I don't think the relationship with the daughter of the strange god is the legitimate one referred to as the wife of your covenant. I think the daughter of the strange god is the person whom the man is betraying the wife of his covenant by being with.

But I agree the metaphor keeps twisting and is hard to get a grip on.
There is no condemnation around the relationship with the daughter of the strange god, only around the treatment of the covenant wife. The implication is that if Judah had not dealt treacherously with the covenant wife them there is no listed sin.
 
I first started typing this in response to a post on the previous thread, as follows:

Thankyou for explaining.

I think you are misinterpreting this, because there are at least three covenants discussed in that chapter.
The first is God's covenant with the tribe of Levi. This is called "my covenant" (v4 and v5), and "the covenant of Levi" (v8).
The second is God's covenant with the people of Israel. This is called "the covenant of our fathers" (v10).
The third is the covenant between a man and his wife. This is called "thy covenant".

I see no reason to take every single time the word "covenant" appears in that chapter and assume it is speaking about the same covenant.

It is clear that the covenant spoken of in v8 is different to the covenant in v10. The first is limited to Levi, the second is for all Israel. Both times these are covenants between God and a specific group of people. Can we agree these are two different covenants?

So what is the covenant in 2:14? Is it the same covenant as in v8, as in v10, or a third covenant?

The most natural reading to me is that the men in question have betrayed the wife of their youth by divorcing them in favour of heathen women ("the daughter of a strange god").

The covenant in question is "thy covenant" - it is not "my covenant" (God's covenant) as in earlier verses, but very clearly (in the original languages also) "your covenant" - a covenant between humans, not with God. A marriage covenant made between humans.

This says to me that marriage covenants exist. It does not prove they are necessary (it is one verse), but it does refer to them as something that is real and exists - and that which breaking is treacherous and sinul.
I disagree, it's one covenant and that covenant is the Law (V8.) which God gave unto the Levites to give unto the people. Sure I agree we can make covenants with our wives. I'm going to make a covenant with the first wife God gives me and that's the covenant of polygyny if it's the Lord's will.
 
Ok so I don't have any meat to offer but I was wondering about the rest of the chapter? And I read the Scriptures version bc it makes more sense to me?
I’m still reeling from this one passage. I ‘m not even sure how to address the whole chapter. It may just be me though. Everyone else seems to be okay with it.

What were your take aways?
 
To me, a covenant is an agreement.
It does not need to be formal.

I don’t see how a woman can be in a marriage without being in agreement about being in that relationship.
 
I’m still reeling from this one passage. I ‘m not even sure how to address the whole chapter. It may just be me though. Everyone else seems to be okay with it.

What were your take aways?
I’m perfectly ok with it as I read it years ago. And came across it again a year ago when I did a deep dive into biblical marriage.

It’s pretty simple when you get away from using modern day parlance and get into using scriptural definitions of words.
 
I’m still reeling from this one passage. I ‘m not even sure how to address the whole chapter. It may just be me though. Everyone else seems to be okay with it.

What were your take aways?
I am not a biblical scholar...but it would seem safe to say that it's a bad idea to treat your wife of your youth badly. It clearly says they have a covenant.
This is my opinion...and just my opinion. I feel like marriage starts with a covenant but is sealed and finalized with the consummation. I don't see how you can have a marriage without a covenant AND consummation. And if there is a covenant then it makes sense that it must be honored. But I could be off topic.
 
Alright. I’m crazy. I see something deep and unique and original here. I think we have a metaphor that is completely opposite of how we normally see it; Judah as husband instead of bride. We have two brides contrasted (another example of polygyny itself not being condemned) and a husband indicted for his treatment of one of them.

I am fairly certain that the covenant wife is a metaphor for the Covenant. But let’s look at the verse by itself and apply treat it like it tells us something about “marriage”.

I’m left where I started. I’ve always said that sex is the bare minimum that forms a marriage. This passage supports that.

The daughter of the strange god doesn’t have a covenant but she is still Judah’s “wife”. Remember that the covenant is what sets the second wife apart from the first but the first is still a wife.

So what we have here is the option for a covenant but not a requirement. And we still don’t know what the covenant is. What about “marriage” is negotiable ? What is we don’t know that we have to make explicit in some kind of agreement? And how is that agreement enforced? Can a woman leave a “marriage” if she feels her covenant isn’t being honored? If not then what’s the point? Who is appointed to adjudicate that?

The whole idea is very poorly thought through and raises far more problems than it resolves.
 
Maybe it might help @The Revolting Man to look at this in the broader sense that I suggested ages ago on this topic - that marriage may be formed by either sex or covenant.

If marriage is when a man is in headship over a woman, or owns a woman, what matters is whether a man has a woman - not necessarily how he got the woman.

If he took her with no formal agreement at all, just started sleeping with her, nobody objects and their relationship is simply recognised as being what it is - she is his woman.

On the other hand, if he makes a formal agreement with her father to pay a bride price, the agreement is all written down in a marriage contract, he pays the price and everyone signs the paperwork - she is his woman from the moment they sign on the dotted line.

Going back to Malachi 2:14 - the man in the illustration has a wife who he took by covenant. That's simply one of the two options.
 
Maybe it might help @The Revolting Man to look at this in the broader sense that I suggested ages ago on this topic - that marriage may be formed by either sex or covenant.

If marriage is when a man is in headship over a woman, or owns a woman, what matters is whether a man has a woman - not necessarily how he got the woman.

If he took her with no formal agreement at all, just started sleeping with her, nobody objects and their relationship is simply recognised as being what it is - she is his woman.

On the other hand, if he makes a formal agreement with her father to pay a bride price, the agreement is all written down in a marriage contract, he pays the price and everyone signs the paperwork - she is his woman from the moment they sign on the dotted line.

Going back to Malachi 2:14 - the man in the illustration has a wife who he took by covenant. That's simply one of the two options.
I’m broadly okay with this interpretation, which I believe I pointed out last time is quite close to my own belief.

I have the caveat that a covenant without sex can only be maintained temporarily or the one flesh wouldn’t form and sex without the covenant forms the one flesh. All of that isn’t necessarily the point here though.

I still want to understand the gender swap on Judah and what makes the wife of his youth a covenant wife.

I’m sorry but ketubah like documents don’t cut it for me. Those are literally nowhere in scripture.
 
To me, a covenant is an agreement.
It does not need to be formal.

I don’t see how a woman can be in a marriage without being in agreement about being in that relationship.
I concur that it is some sort of agreement. It looks like a purchase agreement made between men, the woman being the item agreed upon. There is a price to be paid for the defilement of a woman minus the dad's permission but daddy MAY agree to the deal. It is not found WHAT that (bride)price is. I wonder if the modern giving of a diamond set in gold ring is the price? I have read somewhere that if the marriage fails the diamond and gold are her down payment on a new life. I guess that can make sense but it is not codified in scripture but it is at Kay Jewelers. I remember though that a huge price was paid for Leah and Rachel in the OT.
 
I’m sorry but ketubah like documents don’t cut it for me. Those are literally nowhere in scripture.
No written contract appears in the canonical scriptures. However, a written record of marriage does appear in Tobit - which just happens to be the most detailed record of marriage in scripture (if this is scripture). The father calls for a blank scroll, and writes up a marriage contract as part of the discussion / negotiation around the marriage. So it is possible that a written agreement did not exist in the case of Leah and Rachel but did in the case of Tobit - or it may be that a written agreement existed in both cases but is only mentioned in Tobit since the account is more detailed.

Obviously a written contract cannot be mandatory, or an illiterate person could not marry. I expect written contracts simply exist in cultures where contracts tend to be written, and don't exist in cultures where contracts tend to be verbal. It's nothing mystical.
 
I wonder how much of this confusion stems from people assuming marriage is a covenant (if it is) and so must have a covenant?
The confusion is in the fact you don’t know the definition of the word. So we’re all talking past each other. Everyone has their own made up definition for the word. So nobody is talking about the same thing.
 
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