Well, this week was non-eventful as we moved on to Matt 20. After four weeks in a row, the respite was nice. It was however somewhat eventful in the DeLuca household on Saturday morning/afternoon. My wife had a bad dream. In her dream, I told her that I had paid some woman for sex, because she was not giving me enough sex. I told her that I would never do that, but she told me that in her dream, she was very angry with me. I asked why she should be so angry. Instead of answering, she asked me why shouldn't she be angry. We had an opportunity to discuss Matt 5:32, because she said that this verse, although she couldn't point to the reference, gives her permission to divorce. I pointed out what that verse actually says. The NIV, both the newer and original, are very poor translations of that verse though, which of course did not serve me well. The word "pormeia" has been translated "marital unfaithfulness", in the original NIV, and the newer one botches the phrase"causes her to commit", replacing that with "makes her the victim", which is nowhere to be found in the original Greek. Ugh! I have got to get a better version! If I were not so familiar with the KJV translation of that verse, I might never have known this myself.
I pointed out the fact that the verse itself uses the noun "wife" and says the he "causes her to commit adultery", but she latched onto the phrase "marital unfaithfulness". She was equating cheating with unfaithfulness. I pointed out that according to the Biblical definition of "unfaithfulness" it is when the husband divorces his wife, and I read to her, the passage in Malachi 2. She resorted to the "everyone knows this" argument. She said that I am "messed up". I told her that most people are uninformed, but that did not go anywhere with her. I finally explained to her that the majority is often wrong, and that we choose to allow majority rule, only because of the fact that it is the most peaceful way to make decisions, but that doesn't make it right. I then gave her some examples of where the majority has gotten things wrong. I also pointed out that the word in the original Greek, is porneia, and she didn't need me to explain what "porneia" means, but she employed some sort of circular reasoning, to argue that this means that unfaithfulness means "cheating". I explained to her that I don't subscribe to the "infallibility of any transliteration", but only the infallibility of the original text, and that I subscribe to the "fidelity of the transliterations", but she was not curious enough to want to know the difference between infallibility and fidelity.
I would say, all in all, it was a fruitful conversation, and it didn't raise any tempers, and she didn't have the same spiteful reactions she has had in the past, when either she or I brought up the topic of polygamy. I find it interesting that she was able to attend class and hear my position on the different requirements for men and women, when it comes to divorce and remarriage, but I am not sure if any of that registered with her, when it came to this discussion of whether "porneia" is an exception that works both ways, as if a wife needs this exceptions to divorce her husband. Also, I have explained in the past to her, that a wife is not allowed to remarry, and that no such restriction is ever placed on a husband Matt 19:9, notwithstanding, so that explanation is something that we have already dealt with.
I pointed out the fact that the verse itself uses the noun "wife" and says the he "causes her to commit adultery", but she latched onto the phrase "marital unfaithfulness". She was equating cheating with unfaithfulness. I pointed out that according to the Biblical definition of "unfaithfulness" it is when the husband divorces his wife, and I read to her, the passage in Malachi 2. She resorted to the "everyone knows this" argument. She said that I am "messed up". I told her that most people are uninformed, but that did not go anywhere with her. I finally explained to her that the majority is often wrong, and that we choose to allow majority rule, only because of the fact that it is the most peaceful way to make decisions, but that doesn't make it right. I then gave her some examples of where the majority has gotten things wrong. I also pointed out that the word in the original Greek, is porneia, and she didn't need me to explain what "porneia" means, but she employed some sort of circular reasoning, to argue that this means that unfaithfulness means "cheating". I explained to her that I don't subscribe to the "infallibility of any transliteration", but only the infallibility of the original text, and that I subscribe to the "fidelity of the transliterations", but she was not curious enough to want to know the difference between infallibility and fidelity.
I would say, all in all, it was a fruitful conversation, and it didn't raise any tempers, and she didn't have the same spiteful reactions she has had in the past, when either she or I brought up the topic of polygamy. I find it interesting that she was able to attend class and hear my position on the different requirements for men and women, when it comes to divorce and remarriage, but I am not sure if any of that registered with her, when it came to this discussion of whether "porneia" is an exception that works both ways, as if a wife needs this exceptions to divorce her husband. Also, I have explained in the past to her, that a wife is not allowed to remarry, and that no such restriction is ever placed on a husband Matt 19:9, notwithstanding, so that explanation is something that we have already dealt with.
