I view that as the husband delegating part of that particular duty to the wife. Not something that I am particularly fond of because it can lead to other problems but I don’t consider it to be unscriptural...
Or perhaps it's because we take the definition of 'providing' too literally and assume it to only mean the things listed in the passage of 'reducing her food, shelter, or clothing'. Remember that in those days essentially everything belongs to the husband (except some dowry as others have mentioned). If a wife divorced her husband or left him, she was cut off, right? I believe that meant she 'went out' with, essentially, nothing but the clothes on her back. The rest remained with the household (the husband's). Which to me indicates that provision is not only about more than physical goods (what if the wife's dowry is ridiculously huge, like some princess from a king, and the husband is a carpenter? She has no 'need' of his money to live by herself. Does that mean he doesn't provide for her?), but that even the wife's own ability to provide her own physical goods can still be considered part of a husband's provision.
Look at it from the kingly perspective. David was a peasant who eventually rose in the ranks to become king. But he came from nothing. He married Saul's daughter Milchal, the daughter of a king, a princess, who surely 'started' with far more wealth than David did. Does that mean David wasn't providing for her? As king, of course, David took over the king's coffers, so to speak. But until he was out fighting and getting loot from wars or taxation (I don't remember the Hebrew system for that or if they had one so I may be misspeaking here), his 'income' was almost nothing in comparison to what his initial wives brought to the relationship.
Likewise I do think Proverbs 31 is relevant. What does it matter if it was Solomon's mother or not? He refers to her as a wife, and the virtues she is assigned are related to how she acts in a wifely role. The image we have is of her doing, essentially, most of the monetary/provision-making work for the family, while the husband takes part in matters of community leadership or organizational command (giving her slaves and meeting with men at the town gate). And she's upheld as the example. She's out sewing, sowing, clothing her household, selling goods, etc. The husband is talking. Perhaps being the 'voice' of conducting her business transactions? Too little information is given but the picture to me is that she was the primary 'breadwinner' in the sense of bringing in money through her production and doing menial labor. Clearly, the Bible doesn't seem to think her husband was failing to provide for her.
And then we have the seven women passage. They'll provide their own food, clothing, and money. Sounds to me like they don't need his physical provision either. But he IS providing for them in 'covering' them with his name. By having the role of their leader, their head, that IS his provision to them.
Seems to me the 'problems' it leads to have to do with cultural expectations (poison) and dominance/control challenges to male headship (poison), and are not the fault of a man who is not the primary 'breadwinner'. Although obviously 'not by choice/logic' versus 'not because is lazy/incapable' are different.