Since being married about 3 years ago, my wife has asked me some hard questions. We were watching a movie and a scantily clad woman came on the screen and she asked, "What does it do to you when you see a woman dressed like that?" I didn't have an answer. At the time I believed the traditional translation of Matt. 5:28. Then she asked, "What are we gonna tell our kids about lust?"
Then I was playing the 2011 Tomb Raider. This was the reboot where they redesigned the main character, Lara, to be more realistic. She is wearing a tank top with a camisole underneath as the default outfit. She is also not real. My wife commented she didn't like me playing a game with an attractive character dressed like that. Again, I had no answer. I was still under the impression any sort of attraction or level of arousal to anyone but my wife was adultery.
This struck me as odd, though. Is it wrong to prefer to see attractive people in movies and other entertainment?
Then I discovered the better translation of Matt. 5:28 and polygyny. A wife doesn't have exclusive right to their husbands arousal and lust isn't what we were taught.
This also has implications for modesty discussions. Most modesty discussions I have heard involve Matt. 5:28.
It seems to me Matt. 5:28 has been weaponized to keep men in constant shame and submissive to their wives. Am I getting the right impression?
Does the better translation of Matt. 5:28 and polygyny change how you view and weigh entertainment and modesty?
Then I was playing the 2011 Tomb Raider. This was the reboot where they redesigned the main character, Lara, to be more realistic. She is wearing a tank top with a camisole underneath as the default outfit. She is also not real. My wife commented she didn't like me playing a game with an attractive character dressed like that. Again, I had no answer. I was still under the impression any sort of attraction or level of arousal to anyone but my wife was adultery.
This struck me as odd, though. Is it wrong to prefer to see attractive people in movies and other entertainment?
Then I discovered the better translation of Matt. 5:28 and polygyny. A wife doesn't have exclusive right to their husbands arousal and lust isn't what we were taught.
This also has implications for modesty discussions. Most modesty discussions I have heard involve Matt. 5:28.
It seems to me Matt. 5:28 has been weaponized to keep men in constant shame and submissive to their wives. Am I getting the right impression?
Does the better translation of Matt. 5:28 and polygyny change how you view and weigh entertainment and modesty?